Are they? Isn't it something like 1/4 hetero couples engage in anal sex which is higher than the proportion of homosexual male couples?
You need to compare the proportions of homosexuals who engage in anal sex to the corresponding heterosexual proportion.
I would think that almost all, if not all gay couples would engage in anal sex, which is a vastly greater proportion than 1/4.
I do not think that is sufficient reason to ban or oppress homosexuality, nor any of the consequences such as ban on gay marriage ceremonies. Indeed the Hume gap seems to imply as such!
I don't see this as oppressing homosexuality, since to oppress would require one to actively punish homosexuals.
I'm not going to psychoanalyse BK out of the great respect I have for him as a debater,
. All of my hetero friends that know us don't see it as a problem. There are no health problems among anyone I know of, that I know of. It is most likely a combination of nature and nurture, meaning by determinism that it is a question of individual disposition. Let it be. As for the law, I do concur with the idea that any law against homosexuality in one form or another would be unenforceable. However the law to me is a coherent logical system, a framework that defines what the individual can do. I think a more reasoned distinction should be made in order to have consistency, which leaves something like the Mill Limit, though others that operate on different principles are possible. Such a system is inherently libertarian, and allow fully for homosexuality.



.
). Since in virtually all cases someone with HIV develops AIDS, and since people generally (yes, mistakenly, but that's not the point) use AIDS as synonymous with HIV, I think it's forgivable.
Comment