Are they? Isn't it something like 1/4 hetero couples engage in anal sex which is higher than the proportion of homosexual male couples?
You need to compare the proportions of homosexuals who engage in anal sex to the corresponding heterosexual proportion.
I would think that almost all, if not all gay couples would engage in anal sex, which is a vastly greater proportion than 1/4.
I do not think that is sufficient reason to ban or oppress homosexuality, nor any of the consequences such as ban on gay marriage ceremonies. Indeed the Hume gap seems to imply as such!
I don't see this as oppressing homosexuality, since to oppress would require one to actively punish homosexuals.
I'm not going to psychoanalyse BK out of the great respect I have for him as a debater,
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