Originally posted by Ben Kenobi
					
						
						
							
							
							
							
								
								
								
								
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		What possible difference could "personhood" make for whether the federal government has the authority for a ban? It has no criminal jurisdiction over a murder within state borders for purposes confined to that state, and I really hope you don't have the Due Process Clause in mind, since two private citizens and an Oreck don't add up to "state action"...


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