Originally posted by Boris Godunov
So if Zionism was secular, why didn't they just carve a nice bit of land out of Eastern Europe for the Jewish State? Why did it have to be Israel?
So if Zionism was secular, why didn't they just carve a nice bit of land out of Eastern Europe for the Jewish State? Why did it have to be Israel?
1. Every square foot of Europe was already claimed by some other nationality
2. Every square foot of Europe mattered to the balance of power between the great Imperial powers of the time.
For the Jewish state to be born in Europe would have meant that it would have to be born subordinate to one of the Great Powers.
Lets also recall that the original Zionist were European gentlemen of the time, so their thinking about colonial peoples was just as dismissive as those of the rest of Europe.
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