Originally posted by Tripledoc
I have never heard that the Germans had a deliberate plan to 'farm out' productive capacity to civilian areas in order to shield manfucaturing from area bombing. I would need a source on that.
I have never heard that the Germans had a deliberate plan to 'farm out' productive capacity to civilian areas in order to shield manfucaturing from area bombing. I would need a source on that.
So I am thinking this. Remember the German Economy did not reach full mobilization until 44-45. Until then it been an army characterized by professionalism and technological superiority. Far from the bombardment being an act of insane revenge there was 1) political calculation behind it. Socializing the German workers into army life and impress them with further authoritarianism 2) In order to secure against a communist countercoup in future occupied territories in Germany. 3) The bloated German workers army was mostly employed in the east against the Red Army in a morbid numbers game. Thus the threat of the Red Army completely overrunning the European market could be averted.
Futher points
1) The allies demanded unconditional surrender. Why?
2) The allies were fully aware of the German concentration camps, yet these were not bombed, neither were the railroads leading to them. Why?
1) The allies demanded unconditional surrender. Why?
2) The allies were fully aware of the German concentration camps, yet these were not bombed, neither were the railroads leading to them. Why?
2) Bombing the railroads was considered, but FDR felt that at best the allies would only marginally hold up transportation into the camps and might even stimulate them to speed things up, or to simply shoot the ews where ever they found them. Bombing the camps would simply have made the allies co-conspirqators, as the type of bomber capable of reaching that far into Nazi Europe was not accurate enough to pick off guard towers or barracks. Next I suppose you'll ask why they didn't use laser guided bombs.

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