I'd like to see the mathematical explanation for why 4 of the 101 poorest towns in America are in California and 38 out of 101 are in Texas.
This list is going to be very sensitive to a couple things:
1, large in-state disparity in income.
2, size of the state total.
3, distribution of the population within the state
4, overall average of state income.
CA is a very expensive, high cost of living state and poorly compensated for COL. It's also not a very rural state either - most of the population lives in cities.
Texas, as a median income state wih high population, widely spread out and rural state would be expected to dominate a measure like this, even though Texas as a whole is well compensated. Texas is the first southern state (not counting VA after the VA/WVA state split), to come into the top half of incomes in America.
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