Your taste in sexual partners really does change over time. The teenage guy sits in the classroom and thinks about some 18-year-old stereotypical blonde girl with firm breasts. As the years go by, he becomes inclined to seek out older and more interesting women, discovering that sexual attraction and human affection is also a highly psychological thing. A grown man who has had his share of the young ones might still find them attractive, however he will most likely prefer somebody older as his primary and emotional sex partner.
There are an infinite number of environmental factors that determine your sexuality, so we don't have to use the extreme examples of polar expeditions and the like. If you suffer sexual abuse, you're more likely to be an abuser with time. If you become obsessed with self control for some reason or another, you're more likely to enjoy being whipped around. I remember living down the street from a brothel in Copenhagen where a succesful football player used to come by to get punished - ask any prostitute and (s)he'll tell you that this fetisch is widely enjoyed by people who have had succes and respect in their lives. Now that we've established these changes, why wouldn't some combination of factors - in my childhood and teenage years, perhaps - be sufficient to gradually change me into a homosexual?
Sexual identity, both orientation and other preferences is only a small part of your "total" identity, so to speak. I've decided to accept the notion that a genetic error could make some people more likely to become gays, but why stop there? Wouldn't it be logical to say that if you're born gay or likely-to-be-gay, you could also be born with tendencies towards other sexual practices (s/m, for example) or partners (blondes over redheads or whatever). Or what would be the difference, then?
My point still stands that based on the above, it's fair to say your sexuality - even if some trait or another -is really a flexible thing that's clay in the hands of your environment and the right people. We're not phedophiles, but we've got to understand that if we had been relocated at birth to ancient Greece, the likeliness of that happening would be much higher - wouldn't you think? Surely a phedophile must be as firm and unchangeable in his sexuality as we are, or what?
(Disclaimer, I'm not saying anything about a connection between homosexuality and phedophilia. I'm trying to see where and if the technical difference lies between your gender preference and your preference in all other aspects.)
There are an infinite number of environmental factors that determine your sexuality, so we don't have to use the extreme examples of polar expeditions and the like. If you suffer sexual abuse, you're more likely to be an abuser with time. If you become obsessed with self control for some reason or another, you're more likely to enjoy being whipped around. I remember living down the street from a brothel in Copenhagen where a succesful football player used to come by to get punished - ask any prostitute and (s)he'll tell you that this fetisch is widely enjoyed by people who have had succes and respect in their lives. Now that we've established these changes, why wouldn't some combination of factors - in my childhood and teenage years, perhaps - be sufficient to gradually change me into a homosexual?
Sexual identity, both orientation and other preferences is only a small part of your "total" identity, so to speak. I've decided to accept the notion that a genetic error could make some people more likely to become gays, but why stop there? Wouldn't it be logical to say that if you're born gay or likely-to-be-gay, you could also be born with tendencies towards other sexual practices (s/m, for example) or partners (blondes over redheads or whatever). Or what would be the difference, then?
My point still stands that based on the above, it's fair to say your sexuality - even if some trait or another -is really a flexible thing that's clay in the hands of your environment and the right people. We're not phedophiles, but we've got to understand that if we had been relocated at birth to ancient Greece, the likeliness of that happening would be much higher - wouldn't you think? Surely a phedophile must be as firm and unchangeable in his sexuality as we are, or what?
(Disclaimer, I'm not saying anything about a connection between homosexuality and phedophilia. I'm trying to see where and if the technical difference lies between your gender preference and your preference in all other aspects.)
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