Statistical anomaly?
Factors affecting teen pregnancy other than safe sex education?
Do you have another explanation for the numbers? And what about the fact that states with a greater emphasis on safe sex education (Vermont, Minnesota, Maine, Iowa, Massachusetts) have a lower teen pregnancy rate than states with little sex education or only abstinence-only programs (Nevada, Airzona, Mississippi, New Mexico, Texas)?
This paragraph fails to refute my claim. My claim was: reducing teen pregnancies is a goal of sex education; teen pregnancies have been reduced; therefore sex education has been effective.
In order to refute this claim, you can either contend that (a) reducing teen pregnancies is not a goal of sex education or (b) the reduction in teen pregnancy is not a result of sex education. Rambling on about abortion as birth control does not address the point.
My girlfriend has had multiple male sexual partners before me, has always used protection, and has never gotten pregnant. If contraception is ineffective, this would suggest that either she is infertile or all the male partners she's been with (including me) have been infertile.
I also engaged in protected sex before my current girlfriend and it never resulted in pregnancy. This suggests that either I am infertile or my first girlfriend was infertile.
So what's more likely - that every person I've ever known who has used protection has also coincidentally been infertile and that every person I've ever known who doesn't use protection was only fertile while not wearing protection, or that protection is an effective contraceptive?
Really? Then how come the rates of reported cases of Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Herpes, and HIV/AIDS have been decreasing since the 90s (according to the CDC)?
And you have to include HPV in that equation as well.
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