flubber, it would help if you would pay attention. Nobody is claiming that under all possible movements in prices the person who exercises later will earn a higher payoff. What I'm explaining to you is that the MARKET PRICE OF THE OPTION is always >= its exercise value. In your example, I guarantee you that the price of the option at the umderlier's peak was greater than 41$.
You appear to lack any understanding of the relationship between underlying and derivatives prices imposed by arbitrage.
You appear to lack any understanding of the relationship between underlying and derivatives prices imposed by arbitrage.
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