I wouldnt call them opposite at all. They're different in that initial belief vs assumption , but similarly different from science since they are both non-testable by physical observation.
It seems to me that your separation of math and physics is an arbitrary one. I appreciate the distinction that physics may take math into a physical realm (hence my description of physics as applied mathematics). Your point was that a mathematical theorum wasnt testable by observation and was therefore not science. My problem with that is how one would know for sure when writing a theorum that it's testable (and therefore physics) or not (and therefore math).
You look back in time and say that Einstein knew that his work would be testable, but I ask how did he know that?
Did Schroedinger know that someone would find a way to prove his theorum?
Did he envision supercomputers and the scientific and engineering steps that allow these things to be tested?
Given this blurring between math and physics at the moment of a theorums conception how can you make a distinction in terms of science and non-science?
2. Physical theories certainly rely on mathematical theorems, but that doesn't make it math as physical theories by definition make predictions on the physical world. Math has no such qualifier.
Comment