Oops, missed Obiwan's post earlier. But Obiwan's quote makes even less sense than my origin (incorrect) explanation . . .
As Imran says, viability is the point at which a fetus can live outside the womb. Therefore the Supreme Court's explanation "the 'compelling' point is at viability. This is so because the fetus then presumably has the capability of meaningful life outside the mother's womb" merely means "the 'compelling' point is at viability. This is so because the fetus then presumably is viable."
As Imran says, viability is the point at which a fetus can live outside the womb. Therefore the Supreme Court's explanation "the 'compelling' point is at viability. This is so because the fetus then presumably has the capability of meaningful life outside the mother's womb" merely means "the 'compelling' point is at viability. This is so because the fetus then presumably is viable."
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