Originally posted by Imran Siddiqui
Why does it have to be direct? It seems that if you take all the actions of the Old Testament God, you have a God that says all un-believers should be killed. You are blaming the Koran for simply putting that into writing .
there is never a direct call that all non-believers should be killed if they refuse to convert.
Why does it have to be direct? It seems that if you take all the actions of the Old Testament God, you have a God that says all un-believers should be killed. You are blaming the Koran for simply putting that into writing .
The God of the OT is not an indiscrimnate God in the application of force. Not all un-believers are condemned. Rather, the OT sets in force quite a remarkable system of laws designed to protect foreigners, immigrants, etc.
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