Ethelred, I believe your bottom line is that GB, which liberated Palestine, had no right to permit Jewish immigration without a vote (consent) of the local inhabitants, all of them voting as one, majority vote to decide.
However, I keep getting caught up with your term "Arab" lands. The "Arabs" were Feisal, Abdullah and their father Hussein, all "shieks" from Mecca and Medina. The people of Palestine were not under the rule of these shieks, nor did these shieks have an automatic right to rule Palestine just because their ancestors did ages ago. Nor did they have a right to rule Palestine because they were allies of the British.
The local inhabitants of Palestine were mixtures of Arabic speaking muslims, christians and Jews. The land was not "Arab," unless, of course you implicity subscribe to the notion that the shieks of Arabia had a divine right to be reinstalled as soon as the Brits liberated Palestine.
The crucial point, is therefor, whether the Brits had to get the consent of the "other" residents of Palestine when the Balfour declaration itself provided that Jewish immigration could not "prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine."
I still believe that the answer that does not presume "Arab" sovereignity is, yes. I do not believe the Brits had to get the consent of the other residents because of the reservation. The Brits, as far as I know, did not take away the civil or religious or any other rights of the local non Jewish inhabitants.
Ned
However, I keep getting caught up with your term "Arab" lands. The "Arabs" were Feisal, Abdullah and their father Hussein, all "shieks" from Mecca and Medina. The people of Palestine were not under the rule of these shieks, nor did these shieks have an automatic right to rule Palestine just because their ancestors did ages ago. Nor did they have a right to rule Palestine because they were allies of the British.
The local inhabitants of Palestine were mixtures of Arabic speaking muslims, christians and Jews. The land was not "Arab," unless, of course you implicity subscribe to the notion that the shieks of Arabia had a divine right to be reinstalled as soon as the Brits liberated Palestine.
The crucial point, is therefor, whether the Brits had to get the consent of the "other" residents of Palestine when the Balfour declaration itself provided that Jewish immigration could not "prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine."
I still believe that the answer that does not presume "Arab" sovereignity is, yes. I do not believe the Brits had to get the consent of the other residents because of the reservation. The Brits, as far as I know, did not take away the civil or religious or any other rights of the local non Jewish inhabitants.
Ned
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