Originally posted by Flubber
No leave aside the labor element for the moment. Assume I buy a house for 300K and without any repairs at all it is now worth 350K. Assume that rent adequately compensated for the labor for maintaining the property. Inflation generally was only 2% in those two years.
Is the property owner "entitled" to this compensation on the sale of the property?
No leave aside the labor element for the moment. Assume I buy a house for 300K and without any repairs at all it is now worth 350K. Assume that rent adequately compensated for the labor for maintaining the property. Inflation generally was only 2% in those two years.
Is the property owner "entitled" to this compensation on the sale of the property?
I'd say that goes in the "risk" category. After all, market fluctations could result in the value of the house dropping from 300k to 250k. Is the property owner able to complain that he got hosed for 50 grand? No.
edit: well, yes, he can complain all he likes, but he ain't gettin' his 50 g's back!
-Arrian
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