From another thread that was unsuccessfully threadjacked...
Leaving aside the ridiculous notion that "evil" can only be used as an absolute term (since when has it been illegal/immoral/whatever to say something like "murder is more evil than jaywalking" or whatever?), this looks like the claim that you can't have morality without religion. I've never really understood the gist of this claim, though, even though I've seen it several times before.
One reason I can see for this claim is the belief that some god(s) are the sole determiners of what is moral or immoral. The problem is that if god(s) determine what is right and wrong, then morality is completely arbitrary -- if god(s) tell a worshipper to commit such heinous acts as torture, rape, and murder, then these acts become "good" by virtue of the fact that the god(s) commanded them, and the worshipper is morally obligated to torture, rape, and murder. One of my biggest beefs with this notion is the fact that many religions posit the existence of god(s) whose rules must be followed (e.g., God), as well as the existence of god(s) whose rules must not be followed (e.g., Satan) -- if everybody's rules are completely arbitrary, then how do you know which god(s) to worship and which to reject? Is it just a question of which god(s) are stronger, or what?
The other reason (which isn't mutually exclusive with the first reason) I can see for this claim is the belief that a god or gods will reward the righteous and punish the wicked. However, unless the god or gods arbitrarily determine that which is righteous and wicked, then a non-believer in that god or gods could conceivably determine what is righteous and wicked independently of the god(s) religious texts or priests or whatever. In this case, the "god(s) reward the righteous and punish the wicked" justification for equating morality to religion is actually a perversion of morality -- righteous acts are generally classified as acts performed with benevolent intentions, but if somebody does good works solely to be rewarded by god(s) then his intentions are entirely selfish and thus non-benevolent.
So what gives? How is it that somebody who worships god(s) can distinguish between benevolent/malevolent intentions and/or can distinguish between helpful/harmful actions and/or can distinguish between sound/unsound rules of conduct, while somebody who doesn't worship god(s) supposedly cannot make these distinctions?
Originally posted by Albert Speer
...if you reject religionism, as you call it, what right do you have to call anything evil? evil denotes moral absolutes made possible only through belief in religion...
...if you reject religionism, as you call it, what right do you have to call anything evil? evil denotes moral absolutes made possible only through belief in religion...
One reason I can see for this claim is the belief that some god(s) are the sole determiners of what is moral or immoral. The problem is that if god(s) determine what is right and wrong, then morality is completely arbitrary -- if god(s) tell a worshipper to commit such heinous acts as torture, rape, and murder, then these acts become "good" by virtue of the fact that the god(s) commanded them, and the worshipper is morally obligated to torture, rape, and murder. One of my biggest beefs with this notion is the fact that many religions posit the existence of god(s) whose rules must be followed (e.g., God), as well as the existence of god(s) whose rules must not be followed (e.g., Satan) -- if everybody's rules are completely arbitrary, then how do you know which god(s) to worship and which to reject? Is it just a question of which god(s) are stronger, or what?
The other reason (which isn't mutually exclusive with the first reason) I can see for this claim is the belief that a god or gods will reward the righteous and punish the wicked. However, unless the god or gods arbitrarily determine that which is righteous and wicked, then a non-believer in that god or gods could conceivably determine what is righteous and wicked independently of the god(s) religious texts or priests or whatever. In this case, the "god(s) reward the righteous and punish the wicked" justification for equating morality to religion is actually a perversion of morality -- righteous acts are generally classified as acts performed with benevolent intentions, but if somebody does good works solely to be rewarded by god(s) then his intentions are entirely selfish and thus non-benevolent.
So what gives? How is it that somebody who worships god(s) can distinguish between benevolent/malevolent intentions and/or can distinguish between helpful/harmful actions and/or can distinguish between sound/unsound rules of conduct, while somebody who doesn't worship god(s) supposedly cannot make these distinctions?
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