An explanation of why ME peace isn't possible

[Sirotnikov]

Actually, Some of my views on Foreign Relations issues are influenced Fascist ideas and on Machiavellian Real-Politik. But he had no way of knowing that, and was blindly throwing around curse words.

[Ecthy]

First of all Ned, Germans have no less rights than any other people on Earth. Secondly I don't know if he's German and last but not least ignore him if you don't like his ways.

As far as Macchiboy is concerned, S-boy, you can hardly call him a fascist, he was too early for that. You're just a rational thinker, and some moralist guys can't do with rationalism

[Solver]

By this logic, the Europeans (ignoring their role in the creating the reason Israel exists) would support rescinding the legal status of Israel as a state, and restoring the whole of Palestine to a single, Arab-dominated authority, because that is what the world of Islams wants.

No. Firstly, that, unlike simply voicing support for Palestenians, would be some very active action. Let's face it, currently the Europeans are scratching their butts, simply condemning Israeli actions time to time, and condemning the bigger of suicide blasts. A pretty passive position, actually. While being openly against Israel can also anger USA, which is after all allied with Israel. Much better for France and the like to basically do nothing, strain relationships with Israel a little bit, but not present themselves as a jihad target - that's better than either supporting the Arab world and likely pissing the US off, or supporting Israel and pissing the Arabs off...

[NeOmega]

Originally posted by Ned


Tripledoc, no German has a right to call a Jew a fascist.

Does that mean a black man cannot be a racist? I didn't know you were a Malcolm X philosopher ned.

[Ned]

Originally posted by NeOmega


Does that mean a black man cannot be a racist? I didn't know you were a Malcolm X philosopher ned.

No, Germany has permanently lost its right to make critical remarks of the Jews.

[GePap]

Originally posted by Solver
I dare you to show me where in the Israeli law it says that PM/President got to be orthodox, or Jewish (by religion) at all.

BUt what about Jewish by 'blood' ?(given how many Israelis termed Jews are not overtly religious).

Maybe is just me, but if large chuncks of Israel are off limits to non-Jewish ownership [A Jewish foundation holds in trust most of the land taken from Palestinians, and it is open solely for development by Jews], if for example all Israelis are drafted into the IDF, save the ones classified as Arabs (the Druze go in, but not Arabs), even if in thoery it is not ilegal for an Arab to be PM, stating they are euqal citizens in all respects is absurd.

In 1960 it was not illegal for a black man to be governor of Alabama. Do you think it possible though? Or that the lack of such a law showed there to be equality? NO, thngs in Israel are not AS bad for an Arab as for a Black man in the south in 1960..and agian, that does not mena inequality does not exist.

[Verto]

Originally posted by Ned


No, Germany has permanently lost its right to make critical remarks of the Jews.

Are the Japanese forbidden from making similar comments about the Chinese?

[Ned]

Verto, there is not law on either subject. But it would be extremely offensive to the Chinese for the Japanese to today criticize Chinese conduct during the war.

But the crimes the Germans commited against the Jews was far worse that the crimes of the Japanese against the Chinese. The time has not yet come for the world to forget what they did.

[Tripledoc]

Ned.

If it makes you feel any better I will admit that I am in fact not German. Although there is German blood in me, as well as Celtic and Jewish, and my tribe should appropriatly be under the Greater Germanic Reich had the evil Anglo-Saxons not conspired against us.

[Tassadar500]

Originally posted by Tripledoc
Ned.

If it makes you feel any better I will admit that I am in fact not German. Although there is German blood in me, as well as Celtic and Jewish, and my tribe should appropriatly be under the Greater Germanic Reich had the evil Anglo-Saxons not conspired against us.

When have the Anglo-Saxons conspired against Germany?

[Tripledoc]

Originally posted by Nuclear Master
When have the Anglo-Saxons conspired against Germany?

Well, take a history book from the hayday of the British Empire, say Harmsworth History of the World published in 1907, and compare it to Mein Kampf. They are remarkably similar. Remember that Hess was born in Egypt, and then consider that he helped Hitler write his book in prison. Clearly Hess was an English double agent working for British counter intelligence. The aim was to lure Germany away from the communist menace thereatening the Weimar republic, through the use of Hitler. Also note that the Nazi Party was partially funded by British high finance. Also the crisis sparked by Roosevelts decision to unilaterally impose tariffs in 1931 greatly exaggereated the economic crisis in Germany, dependent on exports as it were. Subsequent to Hitlers takeover the American big industry moves in, IBM and General Motors amongst them, and offers lucrative contracts to the Nazi party. Voila, a classic black intelligence operation.

[Ned]

Tripledoc, I had no idea that the British plot was so elaborate. They appear to have molded Hitler into exterminating the Jews and causing WWII so that Britain and the US could, with minimum effort, conquer Germany once again and continue rule the world, but this time free the Jewish secret control of the world. Wow.

[Tripledoc]

Actually I think the decision to exterminate the Jews was probably not a part of the initial plan. The concept of putting them in to camps was probably considered very early, based on the succesful British experiment during the Boer War. My theory on the reasons behind the outright extermination is that it was done to prevent food shortages. These were endemic in Europe and the whole British Empire prior to the war. In fact the well known British fascist Oswald Moseley wrote a tract were he accused the British government of deliberately causing starvation in the Empire to satisfy European demands. Also it is well to remember that the only long lasting result of the war which has any significance for the daily lives of Europeans today is the Common Agricultural Policy of the EU securing a safe and steady food supply through subsidies.

[CharlesBHoff]

Originally posted by The Mad Monk


Can you say nothing constructive?

I found it significant -- I picked up on it as soon as I read it, and that is what it was saying to me. I found it chilling that such ignorance could be found in such a place of power.

It's would be like saying, after an earthquake in San Diego, that we would welcome help from anywhere -- except from those filthy Mexicans.

Guess what Mexico did offer to help an we turn them down by saying we didnot need help from a third world nation.

[CharlesBHoff]

Originally posted by Tripledoc


Well, take a history book from the hayday of the British Empire, say Harmsworth History of the World published in 1907, and compare it to Mein Kampf. They are remarkably similar. Remember that Hess was born in Egypt, and then consider that he helped Hitler write his book in prison. Clearly Hess was an English double agent working for British counter intelligence. The aim was to lure Germany away from the communist menace thereatening the Weimar republic, through the use of Hitler. Also note that the Nazi Party was partially funded by British high finance. Also the crisis sparked by Roosevelts decision to unilaterally impose tariffs in 1931 greatly exaggereated the economic crisis in Germany, dependent on exports as it were. Subsequent to Hitlers takeover the American big industry moves in, IBM and General Motors amongst them, and offers lucrative contracts to the Nazi party. Voila, a classic black intelligence operation.

One big error FDR wasnot president of the USA untril 1933.