This says nothing, Whaleboy. Of course all subjectives are by definition equally morally valid. Now, if you mean all moral judgements are equally subjective in the absence of an impartial judge, then I think you are making a statement with some meaning.
However, is there an absence of an impartial Judge who is not limited by the same subjectivity that binds each one of us? Unless you can prove this, one ought not to be so confident in this presupposition.
A totally objective judge (no wildcards), is as good as saying ultimate objective (god). I assume god to not exist. The most powerful refutation of my argument would a proof that god does exist.
Now, why should anyone be a liberal and a pacifist? Would it not be equally right, and more consistent to argue for might makes right, in that you can do whatever you feel like it so long as you have the muscle to back it up?
Finally, why should consistency be a virtue, if all moral statements are equally valid?
"I wouldn't do it, but my view is as valid as yours, which does". Of course that has problems in a society which I hope the Mill Limit goes some way to solving.
So what is the philosophical point you are trying to make?
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