When measuring one's wealth should it be measured against the wealth of others, or against your own personal markers?
At another forum I was told I was wealthy because I have more assets than most people on this Earth. I find this logic flawed. For suppose that most people on this Earth deemed poorer than me are eliminated from existence and I retain my same standard of living (it may even improve due to lack of demand on resources?) am I suddenly poor? I think this a nonsense argument.
I measure wealth by what I have compared to what I want. When discussing relative wealth you can say someone is poorer than another but that to me is saying that one person has more ability to purchase any given possession than another, whether or not they want or need it. For example I may see my neighbour has a new car that I can't afford, but if I don't want that type of car I don't feel poorer for not being able to afford it, even though you could say I am poorer than him simply for not being able to afford it. Does that make sense?
So, the only way I can see relative wealth playing a role for me is if I am introduced to a possesion,asset etc that another person has and it incites a desire in me to have one too. If I can not afford it I feel poorer, but only compared to my personal markers.
I guess what I boil this down to is, is it possible to make every person wealthy, or at least not poor (ie. satisfy all basic needs and throw in a few luxuries) without necessarily irradicating disparity of wealth? I personnally think it is.
At another forum I was told I was wealthy because I have more assets than most people on this Earth. I find this logic flawed. For suppose that most people on this Earth deemed poorer than me are eliminated from existence and I retain my same standard of living (it may even improve due to lack of demand on resources?) am I suddenly poor? I think this a nonsense argument.
I measure wealth by what I have compared to what I want. When discussing relative wealth you can say someone is poorer than another but that to me is saying that one person has more ability to purchase any given possession than another, whether or not they want or need it. For example I may see my neighbour has a new car that I can't afford, but if I don't want that type of car I don't feel poorer for not being able to afford it, even though you could say I am poorer than him simply for not being able to afford it. Does that make sense?
So, the only way I can see relative wealth playing a role for me is if I am introduced to a possesion,asset etc that another person has and it incites a desire in me to have one too. If I can not afford it I feel poorer, but only compared to my personal markers.
I guess what I boil this down to is, is it possible to make every person wealthy, or at least not poor (ie. satisfy all basic needs and throw in a few luxuries) without necessarily irradicating disparity of wealth? I personnally think it is.
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