I've seen numerous news reports that some where between 1%-10% of people of European decent have a genetic mutation which makes them immune to infections such as AIDS. My question is why? The standard explanation is that during the long dark ages and the medieval period the social services of the Roman Empire (running water, sewer systems, etc) and this, combined with the rise of long range trade linking Asia & Europe, made Europe a hot house of contagious diseases. For 500-1000 years Europe was racked by one epidemic after another, the worst of which was bubonic plague which killed 35% of the population, so in classic evolutionary theory those with mutations which help resist these disease survived and those most susceptible died.
My question/problem is that virtually all of these epidemics were bacterial in nature while AIDS is caused by a virus so why would bacterial epidemics help protect against viral epidemics when, I believe, the exact fashion a virus enters a cell is different from how a bacteria reproduces?
My question/problem is that virtually all of these epidemics were bacterial in nature while AIDS is caused by a virus so why would bacterial epidemics help protect against viral epidemics when, I believe, the exact fashion a virus enters a cell is different from how a bacteria reproduces?
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