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Growing rift? UK+Europe

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  • Originally posted by kronic
    France can demand many things but were they really part of the last Juncker proposal?
    Yes. Absolutely yes. Juncker was in lock step with his master in demanding that the UK give up its rebate but that no concessions would be offered in return. That's just grand standing that grand standing is what brought about this crisis.

    The EU has a budget problem so they're going to have to stop playing to media cameras and actually start talking about the budget.
    Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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    • Originally posted by CapTVK
      You're just jealous we beat you to the punch by 200 years Oerdin
      Yes, that is it exactly. I am jealous of a Republic in which no one other then the nobility got to vote. That would be my definition of a Republic precisely. Why does the other 98% of the population need to vote? Clearly, such things are not good for a Democracy nor does it have any bearing upon the decision of whither a country is a Republic or not.
      Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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      • Originally posted by Dauphin

        When did the US abandon slavery? Does that make it not a Republic until the 1860s? When did the US award Women the right to vote? Was it not a republic until the 20th Century?
        Of course not! Did you read my post? I said large numbers of the actual population not all of the population. So yes there were blacks and indians who couldn't vote as well as women of all types but the fact remains that the vast majority of the population could vote. That's what seporates the two.

        This is pretty self evident and I was pretty clear about it to so it is something of a false objection for you to pretend to be confused by it now.
        Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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        • Originally posted by Oerdin


          Of course not! Did you read my post? I said large numbers of the actual population not all of the population. So yes there were blacks and indians who couldn't vote as well as women of all types but the fact remains that the vast majority of the population could vote. That's what seporates the two.

          This is pretty self evident and I was pretty clear about it to so it is something of a false objection for you to pretend to be confused by it now.
          How can you deny the vote to all non whites, and to all women and somehow even approach enfranchising a simple majority of the population much less "the vast majority of the population"?

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          • You're right. It should read the majority not vast majority.
            Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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            • Women + slaves > white males. That's fairly easy, considering that women make for 1/2 of the population, and that slaves were sizeable too.
              "I have been reading up on the universe and have come to the conclusion that the universe is a good thing." -- Dissident
              "I never had the need to have a boner." -- Dissident
              "I have never cut off my penis when I was upset over a girl." -- Dis

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              • Can we agree that very large portions of the population got to vote which was not the case in earlier examples?
                Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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                • We can, but I'm afraid you've also failed to understand the finesses of the Dutch republic.
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