Is there scriptual support against premarital sex? I dont think so.

[Brundlefly]

Originally posted by Oerdin


Are you sure she wants to stop because of religious beliefs? It is possible she just isn't as in to you as she used to be. Nothing personal but I wanted to explore all options.

That's part of it, I guess. She feels extremely guilty about the sex thing. She wants a guy who will lead her spiritually - not hold her back. I found out on Sunday that there were other issues she had with my behavior. So we ended our two-year relationship.

[Brundlefly]

Originally posted by Alexander's Horse
considering he seems to be a complete arsehole that seems quite likely

I'll accept that label. Take it from a former nice guy, though - "arseholes" get laid a lot more than nice guys...

[Ned]

Originally posted by bfg9000
I think I'm beginning to understand this subject better within the context of the bible: The very first time I had sex - it was not a sin. I became married to that girl in Gods eyes. Each subsequent time I had sex in my life was an act of adultery against that very first girl..

Sound right and wrong at the same time. Makes the whole concept of premarital sex being sin ludicrous, which is why I think the only thing condemned by Jesus, consistent with the Ten Commandments, is adultery. Sex with Harlots is mentioned primarily because in those days sex with prostitutes was not considered adultery. (I know I have mentioned this point many times in this thread, but no one seems to be able to analyze this issue by placing it in context of the age.)

[Mrs. Tuberski]

i dont get that how sex with a prostuitute isnt adultry. If ur married i dont care if its adam or eve you have sex with them thats adultry Because the sex isnt with your wife.

[Ned]

Mrs. T, under Roman Law, sex with a prostitute was not adultery. Once you understand this, a lot of what Jesus and Paul were saying becomes clear. It was no accident that the word "porneia" was used because that word means "sex with a harlot."

[Mrs. Tuberski]

Originally posted by Ned
Mrs. T, under Roman Law, sex with a prostitute was not adultery. Once you understand this, a lot of what Jesus and Paul were saying becomes clear. It was no accident that the word "porneia" was used because that word means "sex with a harlot."

I dont give a rats ass what the bible says its still adultry.
The bible is up for interpetion and mostly by men. I dont give a **** what most men think. am i to agree what the men think like stuff like im gonna go screw a harlot but im not cheating on my wife crap. i beleive its all bull****

[Ned]

Originally posted by Mrs. Tuberski

I dont give a rats ass what the bible says its still adultry.
The bible is up for interpetion and mostly by men. I dont give a **** what most men think. am i to agree what the men think like stuff like im gonna go screw a harlot but im not cheating on my wife crap. i beleive its all bull****

Mrs. T, I agree, of course. But you still have to consider the context of the time. Married men had been patronizing prostitutes from time immemorial. It was a long established pratice and it was legal under the law.

I suspect that the early church had some difficulty in changing the customary practices of its members and that is the reason for the epistles of St. Paul telling the Greeks that sex with prostitutes was a sin.

[Ned]

BTW, I asked St. Marcus how married women in Holland felt about their husbands patronizing prostitutes after that profession was legalized there. He said that the women continued to believe that it was cheating.

[Mrs. Tuberski]

it is cheating. i dont care how anyone puts it. the bible has been interperted by men so the women have to belive what they have interperted said happened.
if your having sex with somebody other then your spouse it is cheating.

[Ned]

Originally posted by Mrs. Tuberski
it is cheating. i dont care how anyone puts it. the bible has been interperted by men so the women have to belive what they have interperted said happened.
if your having sex with somebody other then your spouse it is cheating.

I think you got it backwards. In the old days, woman had virtually no rights at all. There was a double-standard. Women could not have affairs without committing adultery. Neither could men with so-called "good" girls; but they could visit prostitutes and perhaps have male lovers (Greece) without committing adultery. What St. Paul was trying to do was to change this so that men could not have extra-marital sex of any type. This obviously was pro-woman and pro-family.

You may be surprised also that women could not get married for love. They had to marry the person their parents chose. This was changed during the reign of Justinian in the early 500's at the behest of Theodora, Justinians wife who grew up in poverty and became an actress (a very low profession for women) before meeting and then marrying Justinian.

It was also at this time they changed the laws that would allow a widow to have custody of her own kids. Again, this was Theodora's doing as her own mother could not have legal custody of her when her father died.

But that was 500 years after the period of time of the New Testament. Imagine the status of women then. The had no status and no rights at all.

[lord of the mark]

Originally posted by bfg9000
I think I'm beginning to understand this subject better within the context of the bible: The very first time I had sex - it was not a sin. I became married to that girl in Gods eyes. Each subsequent time I had sex in my life was an act of adultery against that very first girl..

er, no.