Don't feel like getting into another "What started the Civil War" debate right now, but whomever mentioned protective tariffs was indeed correct.
Lincoln was campaigning on the Morrill Tariff, which raised duties to extremely high amounts on industrial goods coming from Europe (for the time), and it passed the House before Lincoln was elected. When it was clear that the tariff would pass the Senate and that it would be enforced by the new President (who was a life-long mercantilist, basing his political career around protective tariffs), the deep South seceded. In Lincoln's first inaugural, he said, "The power confided in me will be used to hold, occupy, and possess the property, and places belonging to the government, and to collect the duties and imposts; but beyond what may be necessary for these objects, there will be no invasion – no using force against, or among the people anywhere." Basically, Lincoln promised that he would invade the South and force them to give up duties for the federal government, a repeat of Jackson's dealing with the Nullification Crisis over the Tariff of Abominations (note that this tariff almost caused a Civil War around 1833).
On the other hand, the federal government had no authority whatsoever to abolish slavery, the federal governmment would never have the authority to abolish slavery unless the Southern states overwhelmingly consented (in which case, becoming independent defeats the purpose of avoid abolition), Lincoln never said implicitly or explicitly that he would abolish slavery before his election, and afterwards, only to preserve the Union. Basically, the only way that the North would impose abolition on the South was if it seceded and circumstances dictated (in this case, to ward of European and French intervenction) that slavery had to be abolished to preserve the Union.
Someone has mentioned the Northern states' nonimplementation of the Fugitive Slave Act and likelyhood of freedom in the territories as reasons for secession. Well, the Fugitive Slave Act would certainly never be enforced in the North if the South seceded, and since the territories were overwhelmingly Union anyways, slavery certainly couldn't be imposed there after secession.
What about the balance of slave and free states? Well, again, abolition could never be imposed on the South regardless of how large the ratio of free to slave states there exists. On the other hand, tariffs protecting the North's industry certainly could be and were imposed on the South, and when the ratio of free-to-slave states increase, so too does the ratio of industrially dominated to agriculturally dominated states, and therefore so to do tariff duties on foreign industrial goods.
Lincoln was campaigning on the Morrill Tariff, which raised duties to extremely high amounts on industrial goods coming from Europe (for the time), and it passed the House before Lincoln was elected. When it was clear that the tariff would pass the Senate and that it would be enforced by the new President (who was a life-long mercantilist, basing his political career around protective tariffs), the deep South seceded. In Lincoln's first inaugural, he said, "The power confided in me will be used to hold, occupy, and possess the property, and places belonging to the government, and to collect the duties and imposts; but beyond what may be necessary for these objects, there will be no invasion – no using force against, or among the people anywhere." Basically, Lincoln promised that he would invade the South and force them to give up duties for the federal government, a repeat of Jackson's dealing with the Nullification Crisis over the Tariff of Abominations (note that this tariff almost caused a Civil War around 1833).
On the other hand, the federal government had no authority whatsoever to abolish slavery, the federal governmment would never have the authority to abolish slavery unless the Southern states overwhelmingly consented (in which case, becoming independent defeats the purpose of avoid abolition), Lincoln never said implicitly or explicitly that he would abolish slavery before his election, and afterwards, only to preserve the Union. Basically, the only way that the North would impose abolition on the South was if it seceded and circumstances dictated (in this case, to ward of European and French intervenction) that slavery had to be abolished to preserve the Union.
Someone has mentioned the Northern states' nonimplementation of the Fugitive Slave Act and likelyhood of freedom in the territories as reasons for secession. Well, the Fugitive Slave Act would certainly never be enforced in the North if the South seceded, and since the territories were overwhelmingly Union anyways, slavery certainly couldn't be imposed there after secession.
What about the balance of slave and free states? Well, again, abolition could never be imposed on the South regardless of how large the ratio of free to slave states there exists. On the other hand, tariffs protecting the North's industry certainly could be and were imposed on the South, and when the ratio of free-to-slave states increase, so too does the ratio of industrially dominated to agriculturally dominated states, and therefore so to do tariff duties on foreign industrial goods.
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