Originally posted by Agathon
But this is irrelevant to the justice of the law. If the law is something they would have agreed to anyway, what case would they have?
You need to show that there is some added value to a law that is enacted by consent over the same law enacted by the tyrant. It's the same law in both cases and has the same effects..
What's the moral difference?
But this is irrelevant to the justice of the law. If the law is something they would have agreed to anyway, what case would they have?
You need to show that there is some added value to a law that is enacted by consent over the same law enacted by the tyrant. It's the same law in both cases and has the same effects..
What's the moral difference?
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