A legislature redrawing districts due to public demand from a referendum is a totally different thing from a legislature redrawing districts, in defiance of state legislative rules, just because there has been a change in power
No it isn't. It's exactly the same thing. I can't see the difference, other than in one case there is a referendum determining the people's will and in this case there is an election determining the people's will.
These are representatives of the people changing around the districting. How is this any more 'subverting' the process when every state in the country redistricts? Just because they aren't doing it in the traditional time? So?
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