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Support for same sex marriage grows... ever stronger
What magic part about being gay would lead me to greater chances of substance abuse?
Here's what I posted again (since you missed it).
"Its not impossible that the brain chemistry that determines homosexuality may also predispose one to an addictive personality."
Its a pretty accurate statement so long as one agrees with the evidence that homosexuality and addictive personality are genetically determined. Since widely divergent genetic traits can be linked to one another (for example sickle cell anemia and African ancestry), its not impossible that these two seemingly disparate characteristics are too.
Its not 'magic', its called science. I know the vast majority of non-scientists such as yourself confuse science and magic but I dont. Its my job.
OTOH, perhaps you dont agree that homosexuality is genetically determined? Perhaps you agree with those who believe it is a choice? That position would invalidate my statement to some extent, since it would blur the intent of my original statement.
I believe sexual orientation is NOT a choice. But that does not necessarily mean that whatever determines one's sexual orientation is the same biochemical that increases liklihood of substance abuse.
And your attempt to take my "magic" remark seriously was really lame.
A lot of Republicans are not racist, but a lot of racists are Republican.
I believe sexual orientation is NOT a choice. But that does not necessarily mean that whatever determines one's sexual orientation is the same biochemical that increases liklihood of substance abuse.
And your attempt to take my "magic" remark seriously was really lame.
I don't think Spencer said it was. I think he just said that it's a possibility.
but if the biochemistry responsible for one's sexual orientation can also POSSIBLY determine one's liklihood of substance abuse, who is to say then that it's not heterosexuality that can increase such liklihood? After all, a significant number of heterosexuals happen to suffer from one form of substance abuse or another.
A lot of Republicans are not racist, but a lot of racists are Republican.
but if the biochemistry responsible for one's sexual orientation can also POSSIBLY determine one's liklihood of substance abuse, who is to say then that it's not heterosexuality that can increase such liklihood? After all, a significant number of heterosexuals happen to suffer from one form of substance abuse or another.
Sure, that's also a possibility, but there's no reason to believe it's the case until there is evidence that, ceteris paribus, heterosexuals are more likely than homosexuals to abuse a substance. As far as I know, nobody has suggested that there is.
If the biochemical that determines one's sexual orientation is the same type of biochemical for straight people as well as gay people (just different amount, or a different balance with another related biochemical) then I don't see how you would be able to find in any study, that only in gay people does the same biochemical increases one's liklihood for substance abuse.
Oh, the POSSIBILITIES!
A lot of Republicans are not racist, but a lot of racists are Republican.
Since homeless people have a higher likelyhood of drug or alcohol addiction we should make homelessness illegal in order to improve their health.
It's almost as if all his overconfident, absolutist assertions were spoonfed to him by a trusted website or subreddit. Sheeple
RIP Tony Bogey & Baron O
If the biochemical that determines one's sexual orientation is the same type of biochemical for straight people as well as gay people (just different amount, or a different balance with another related biochemical) then I don't see how you would be able to find in any study, that only in gay people does the same biochemical increases one's liklihood for substance abuse.
Oh, the POSSIBILITIES!
If it's as you describe, then "goal" would be to show that the different amount or different balance increases the likelihood for substance abuse, not the mere presence of the chemical. I see no reason that wouldn't be achievable given that (a) you have a quantifiable difference between the two groups, and (b) presumably, a causal link can be established between the amount/concentration/whatever of the chemical and increased likelihood of substance abuse.
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