Originally posted by OzzyKP
The "byzantine empire" began as the Roman empire and always considered itself part the Roman empire, and everyone else around them considered them the Roman empire. It was only recently that we came up with a new term for them. Why would they be distinct?
You can't expect the culture and social life and such to remain stagnant for a full 1,000 years, do you? Things adapt. Half the empire fell and the other half adapted to the east. But that doesn't mean it became a new empire.
The "byzantine empire" began as the Roman empire and always considered itself part the Roman empire, and everyone else around them considered them the Roman empire. It was only recently that we came up with a new term for them. Why would they be distinct?
You can't expect the culture and social life and such to remain stagnant for a full 1,000 years, do you? Things adapt. Half the empire fell and the other half adapted to the east. But that doesn't mean it became a new empire.
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