Was the late Roman Empire progressive. If you study the Chinese model it becomes apparent that great empires, though acting to stabilize commerce and enforcing the peace within their borders often stymie creativity. This is especially a problem when the central authority becomes increasingly self-centered. By the time of Caligula Roman Emporers were declaring themselves gods. When the ruiler becomes a deity the entire society becomes subordinate to his whim. Such rulers often see innovation as a threat to their authority and hence the stifle creativity. Rome in its last 2 centuries may have built cities and trade routes, but I'm not aware that it was an era of rapid scientific progress.
Furthermore, since the Eastern Empire continued on, why didn't Roman science continue to flourish? I think that by the 3rd century Rome's cultural age of advancement had come to an end and had the barbarian invasions never happened and the western empire had lived on there would not have been much difference in the rate of scientific advancement during the years which we now call the dark ages.
On the other hand, when one considers the role of Islam on world scientific advancement, had the Islamic invaders not inserted themselves between Europe and India would it not be likely that Indian numerals might have reached Europe even earlier? The muslims sometimes facilitated east-west trade, but just as often they acted as a wall sealing Europe off from the east. Turning the argument around once more, had the Roman Empire continued to control western commerce and thought, might it have suppressed the use of the new numerical system?
Furthermore, since the Eastern Empire continued on, why didn't Roman science continue to flourish? I think that by the 3rd century Rome's cultural age of advancement had come to an end and had the barbarian invasions never happened and the western empire had lived on there would not have been much difference in the rate of scientific advancement during the years which we now call the dark ages.
On the other hand, when one considers the role of Islam on world scientific advancement, had the Islamic invaders not inserted themselves between Europe and India would it not be likely that Indian numerals might have reached Europe even earlier? The muslims sometimes facilitated east-west trade, but just as often they acted as a wall sealing Europe off from the east. Turning the argument around once more, had the Roman Empire continued to control western commerce and thought, might it have suppressed the use of the new numerical system?
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