Last night I watched a program on the history channel that delt with the last days of World War 2, and I started wondering at what point did allied victory go from probability to inevitablity. One of segments talked about Hitler reacting to the news of FDR's death shortly before Hitler committed suicide. It described Hitler as overjoyed because he latched onto this occurance as a mircle. He thought this because of the similarity to Czarina dying in Frederick's time, and since Hitler linked himself to Frederick he thought that FDR's death would turn the tide in Germany's favor. However, by that point unless Truman was a Nazi mole with so much charisma that he could persuade the US to declare war on the UK and USSR, Germany had no chance for victory.
So my question is this, at what point does WW2 reach a tipping point where even a sudden ahistorical string of German military victories only slow down the allied advance and eventual victory instead of turning the tide of war in Germany's favor? Make the following assumptions:
1) The allies do not turn on each other without some catastrophy (like a Germany victory shortly after Normandy which causes the US to sue for peace).
2) The allies maintain the stated goal of Germany surrendering unconditionally.
3) Germany doesn't suddenly develop powerful new wonder weapons. So fielding Me-262 squadrons earlier are hypothetical OKs, MIRVed ICBMs tipped with h-bombs in 1943 aren't.
My personal opinion is that Germany's slow initial responce to Operation Overlord was the last nail in Germany's coffin. If somehow the Germans could have counterattacked and pushed UK/US forces back into the sea on or near D-day then the Nazis still had a very slim chance. Though I admit anything after Stalingrad is arguable. Certainly in late 1942 Germany still had a chance. One thing that could have shifted the war slightly in Germany's favor at various points in the War would have been changing their codes. It seems obvious that the Allies had far better intelligence operations throughout the war which certainly aided their cause.
I know many of you here have a great deal of WW2 knowledge, so what do you think?
So my question is this, at what point does WW2 reach a tipping point where even a sudden ahistorical string of German military victories only slow down the allied advance and eventual victory instead of turning the tide of war in Germany's favor? Make the following assumptions:
1) The allies do not turn on each other without some catastrophy (like a Germany victory shortly after Normandy which causes the US to sue for peace).
2) The allies maintain the stated goal of Germany surrendering unconditionally.
3) Germany doesn't suddenly develop powerful new wonder weapons. So fielding Me-262 squadrons earlier are hypothetical OKs, MIRVed ICBMs tipped with h-bombs in 1943 aren't.
My personal opinion is that Germany's slow initial responce to Operation Overlord was the last nail in Germany's coffin. If somehow the Germans could have counterattacked and pushed UK/US forces back into the sea on or near D-day then the Nazis still had a very slim chance. Though I admit anything after Stalingrad is arguable. Certainly in late 1942 Germany still had a chance. One thing that could have shifted the war slightly in Germany's favor at various points in the War would have been changing their codes. It seems obvious that the Allies had far better intelligence operations throughout the war which certainly aided their cause.
I know many of you here have a great deal of WW2 knowledge, so what do you think?
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