Originally posted by PLATO1003
Ned's analysis is correct to a point.
The Fed should only pay interest on the required reserves.
Further, this would increase the money supply with a multiplier effect of 2 times for government lending and 3 times for consumer and business lending. Therefore you could assume that the net effect on M1 would be .01 X (.1 X reserve requirement) X 2 for government lending and .01 X (.1 X reserve requirement) X 3 for consumer or business lending.
Ned's analysis is correct to a point.
The Fed should only pay interest on the required reserves.
Further, this would increase the money supply with a multiplier effect of 2 times for government lending and 3 times for consumer and business lending. Therefore you could assume that the net effect on M1 would be .01 X (.1 X reserve requirement) X 2 for government lending and .01 X (.1 X reserve requirement) X 3 for consumer or business lending.

Why should the banks get free money? The reserves are there for their interest, to protect the banking system.
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