I'm not going to have this as a troll, like it will most likely turn out to be, but here goes.
I've been reading my Bible a lot closer lately, and nowhere in there does it say OR allude to Sodom and Gomorrah as being destroyed for pervasive homosexuality. It is not mentioned directly, and as far as I can see (in TWO versions), there is no allusion to indicate that the destruction took place due to men having sex with men.
Could you please explain to me why, then, it is so widely interpretted this way be fundamentalist christians, and even some moderates?
I've been reading my Bible a lot closer lately, and nowhere in there does it say OR allude to Sodom and Gomorrah as being destroyed for pervasive homosexuality. It is not mentioned directly, and as far as I can see (in TWO versions), there is no allusion to indicate that the destruction took place due to men having sex with men.
Could you please explain to me why, then, it is so widely interpretted this way be fundamentalist christians, and even some moderates?
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