Originally posted by Ned
Lung, the ICC would have jurisdiction over an American only if the US did not try him first in a "fair" manner. The US, if they tried a soldier, would always try him in a fair manner - far better than the ICC which provides no rights for the accused, such as the right for compulsory process and the right to confront his accusers.
The United States may, though, decide NOT to prosecute because in its view, the soldier's actions were either justified or "ordered." If the former, we will not permit an ICC procesutor to second guess our own view of the evidence. If the ICC were to proceed nontheless and arrest the soldier, we reserve the right to forcibly remove him from the jurisdiction of the ICC. This could get real ugly.
Finally, if the action were ordered, the ICC would be sitting in judgment of the United States. That is an act of war.
Although Clinton signed the treaty, he said he would never send it to the Senate to be ratified. The ICC, not being an arm of the SC, is simply wrongheaded.
Lung, the ICC would have jurisdiction over an American only if the US did not try him first in a "fair" manner. The US, if they tried a soldier, would always try him in a fair manner - far better than the ICC which provides no rights for the accused, such as the right for compulsory process and the right to confront his accusers.
The United States may, though, decide NOT to prosecute because in its view, the soldier's actions were either justified or "ordered." If the former, we will not permit an ICC procesutor to second guess our own view of the evidence. If the ICC were to proceed nontheless and arrest the soldier, we reserve the right to forcibly remove him from the jurisdiction of the ICC. This could get real ugly.
Finally, if the action were ordered, the ICC would be sitting in judgment of the United States. That is an act of war.
Although Clinton signed the treaty, he said he would never send it to the Senate to be ratified. The ICC, not being an arm of the SC, is simply wrongheaded.
If it meets satisafactory requirements of the US, then it can't legitimately be opposed. The proof is in the pudding, and whether the US can accept the ICC in principle is the proof whether the US is being reasonable or otherwise.
As to the so-called "act of war", it's dubious to say the least. Invading territory can reasonably be considered an act of war (which of course includes embassies), but being judged by a US court to be not guilty does not give one the right to be impervious to judgement by a neutral source. Under your logic, Saddam could order a general to commit genocide, then clear him of charges and expect him to be considered innocent of any crime. Certainly there is no comparison between an Iraqi general and a US general, but in the eyes of ANY law, it must be. Otherwise it is open to abuse. An american soldier can abuse this position of priviledge, undermining authority of not only the ICC, but american authority as well. It leaves open abuse-of-power, and creates a very dangerous precedent within US law, especially considering Bush's willingness to have trials OUTSIDE the US judicial system, which amounts to political decisions deciding judicial outcomes. If it is deemed politically expedient to clear a soldier of crimes due to the political gains made, then the rule of law becomes a farce.
Comment