Originally posted by David Floyd
Good point, but again, the Geneva Convention has no enforcement mechanism, and no court set up by the treaty. If the treaty had done that, most nations probably wouldn't have signed it.
Further, the application of "crimes against humanity" is bull**** - how can Milosevic or Japanese General Yama****a be considered criminals but people like Truman and FDR and Curtis LeMay not be? They all ordered the murder of civilians, except the Americans did it in a far larger scale.
Good point, but again, the Geneva Convention has no enforcement mechanism, and no court set up by the treaty. If the treaty had done that, most nations probably wouldn't have signed it.
Further, the application of "crimes against humanity" is bull**** - how can Milosevic or Japanese General Yama****a be considered criminals but people like Truman and FDR and Curtis LeMay not be? They all ordered the murder of civilians, except the Americans did it in a far larger scale.
Would it be illegal to target non-military targets, i.e., "infrastricture" potentially killing "X" number of enemy civilians, in order to prevent crimes against humanity leveled at 10X or 100X innocents? I don't think that to do so would be right. That's what the US did in Serbia - it destroyed the infrastructure of a nation bent on the genocide of one million of its inhabitants. Since nowhere near one million Serbs were killed the policy can be said to have been justified.
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