Originally posted by Natan
This same logic could be used against Palestinians, since the risk of a Palestinian youth dying is greater than that of an Israeli way, but of course neither you nor anyone else would say that. You're not saying that the parents took a risk, you're saying that the sins of the fathers must be visited on the (one year old) children - not to be confused with racism, of course.
This same logic could be used against Palestinians, since the risk of a Palestinian youth dying is greater than that of an Israeli way, but of course neither you nor anyone else would say that. You're not saying that the parents took a risk, you're saying that the sins of the fathers must be visited on the (one year old) children - not to be confused with racism, of course.
Okay, so it's just that all Jews in the area should be killed. I don't think living in an area can be considered aggression. I don't think you can say that people who "profit from aggression" should/can be killed. This is again Nazi logic; the Jews certainly gained from the Versailles treaty.
That is not Nazi logic (as someone reading Mein Kampf can tell you), that term is highly overused, besides the fact that purely Nazi ideology is a weird and thin mix. As for constituting aggression: What is meant is that Zionist settlers have come into land which were taken by military force, which in 1967 was aggresion. Again, Israel was planning to go to war in 1967 to stop Syrian shelling from the Golan. When Nasser in Egypt tried to scare israel away from attacking by making threats, and when he got HUssein to agree, thats when Israel decided to go after all three, not just Syria.
Seeing as they also say they'll never compromise on their goals . . .
I wonder: where did you read that the Palestinians, all of them, still want the whole mandate back? The Fatah constitution? Do you realize that is from the 60's, and has been supersedeed by many more documents? Have you ever gone to Zionist websites, you know, the ones that claim Jordan for Israel cause transjordan was part of the administrative area of palestine at the time of Balfour (and what right did britain have in giving away Ottoman land populated mostly by Arabs?)? In 1988, yes, 1988, the PLO recognized Israel- which is why the US opened relations with them, aboth Yamir's opposition. Again, if this has not yet gotten through the huindred times I have written it to you: THE PALESTINIANS HAVE RECOGNIZED THE EXISTANCE, AND RIGHT TO EXIST, OF ISRAEL, WITHIN ITS 1967 BORDERS, WHICH IS WHY, IN 1988, THE REAGAN ADMINISTRATION, ABOVE ISRAELI COMPLAINTS, OPENED TALKS AND RELATIONS WITH THE PLO So, you saying that the Palestinians haave yet to recognize israel is based on either ignorance, which by now, would be intollerable, or some ideological bent which does not allow you to recognize that validity of that act.
These were insignifigant. And besides, the Poles did not target them. Oh, and as for that snide settlements comment, the Poles did the same thing in 1945.
The big diff with the Poles in 1945 is that the world had changed Polands borders, so that these were Poles moving to live elsewhere in Poland- as far as I know, completely legal. The illegality of Jewish settlements is based on the fact that the occupied territories (hence the name!) are not recognized by anyone, as Israeli land.
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