-I edited this into my earlier response but it's probably long enough after the fact that I should repost it here rather than expecting anybody to re-read the previous pages-
The men involved in drafting the constitution were not generally dead much less long dead when the courts added seperation of church and state to the US constitution.
I should also point out that the first amendment is worded as follows:
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances"
You seem to be claiming that this is somehow vague which allowed for the courts to step in and clarify it to mean that no government entity of any branch of government shall make any statement, expression, or action that may be construed as endorsing or belonging to any particular religon whether congress makes a law or not.
I would like you to point out where the vagueness of the 1st amendment is and how the anti terrorism law was somehow less vague than the first ammendment was.
Originally posted by GePap
There is no clarification of what the phrase means in the constitution- criminal statutes are more detailed than that-not the same. This is not a game of guessing what long dead men thought-this is looking at the statute on the books and deciding which is proper.
There is no clarification of what the phrase means in the constitution- criminal statutes are more detailed than that-not the same. This is not a game of guessing what long dead men thought-this is looking at the statute on the books and deciding which is proper.
I should also point out that the first amendment is worded as follows:
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances"
You seem to be claiming that this is somehow vague which allowed for the courts to step in and clarify it to mean that no government entity of any branch of government shall make any statement, expression, or action that may be construed as endorsing or belonging to any particular religon whether congress makes a law or not.
I would like you to point out where the vagueness of the 1st amendment is and how the anti terrorism law was somehow less vague than the first ammendment was.
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