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Chirac warns of 'catastrophe' of world 'choked' by US values

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  • Originally posted by Tingkai
    Well now you're saying "I was talking..." Before you said this was Boorstin's theory. Are you saying your theory is the same as his?




    I'm when I present his theory (which I happen to think is correct), and I clarify my statements, it doesn't change the fact that I still presented his theory.

    And given your previous statements that the southern US accent is closest to Elizabethan English, are you now contending that all the colonialists spoke with a southern US accent?


    Yes, obviously.

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    • I wonder what chirac thinks of the mushrooming success of japanese cultural exports? Perhaps he'd prefer to ignore them as it would challenge his dire warnings of a world being choked by a US stranglehold monopoly of cultural exports?

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      • Originally posted by Kuciwalker
        Originally posted by Tingkai
        Well now you're saying "I was talking..." Before you said this was Boorstin's theory. Are you saying your theory is the same as his?




        I'm when I present his theory (which I happen to think is correct), and I clarify my statements, it doesn't change the fact that I still presented his theory.
        Relax dude. It looked like you were playing an old debate trick of making one statement saying "Boorstin said" and then making a contradictory statement saying "I said".

        But you need to get your story straight. One minute you're claiming Boorstin said colonialist spoke the best English and then the next minute you arguing that he didn't say that.

        Now look at the theory that colonialists all spoke with the same accents.

        British accents vary, even within London. Somehow people with a variety of accents all manage to start speaking with one accent during the colonial period. Then after 1776, regional accents begin appearing, except in the south where the accent remains static.

        How would you explain that because it doesn't make sense?
        Golfing since 67

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        • I've answered that before, they came from the Midlands and London.

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          • So has Chiracs catastrophe happened yet? I mean the world has been over run by American values so surely it must have happened, right?
            Try http://wordforge.net/index.php for discussion and debate.

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            • Originally posted by Kuciwalker
              I've answered that before, they came from the Midlands and London.
              So? Accents varied in the Midlands and London. So why did these varied accents become uniformed in the colonial period only to diverge in the post-colonial period?
              Golfing since 67

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              • Ask him. I don't know. I do know he's backed up with primary-source stuff.

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                • Originally posted by Kuciwalker
                  Ask him. I don't know. I do know he's backed up with primary-source stuff.
                  No he isn't. All the primary source 17th century accent evidence in the world wouldn't be sufficient to back up such a broad assertion as that all midlands and london era residents had a sort of southern accent which all colonists also shared.

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                  • I was talking about the uniformity of the accent, there, actually

                    And he very well can have evidence that people had the same accents - just look at what people of the time said.

                    Anyway, I'm tired of arguing a minor point in one chapter of a big book. If you care, read the chapter, if you don't, stop pestering me.

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