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  • #76
    1)Wraith

    2)Berzerker

    3)MtG
    Follow me on Twitter: http://twitter.com/DaveDaDouche
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    • #77
      Originally posted by Big Crunch


      You use "who" as the subjective form (e.g "he"/"she"/ "they"), and "whom" as a direct or indirect object (e.g "him"/ "her"/"them"):

      As the grammatically correct question is "who are they?" or "Who is he?" not "Whom are them" or "Whom is he?"Agathon is correct, in his usage of "who" at least..

      Edit - almost irrelevant typo.
      Not "Whom are them" but "Whom are they". "Whom are they" is the inverted form of "They are whom". It would be incorrect to say "They are who".

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      • #78
        No skywalker. Word order is grammatically significant in English.

        The distinction between "who" and "whom" is basically simple: "who" is the subject form of this pronoun and "whom" is the object form. "Who was wearing that awful dress at the Academy Awards banquet?" is correct because "who" is the subject of the sentence. "The MC was so startled by the neckline that he forgot to whom he was supposed to give the Oscar" is correct because "whom" is the object of the preposition "to." So far so good.


        If you are right, what is the subject of "Whom is wearing the red dress?" or "Whom are they?"
        Only feebs vote.

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        • #79
          Originally posted by Oncle Boris
          And I'll add this Evan, who has not posted anything in the last three months. Alas, it seems like I'm the noob here.
          Yep... EVC still posts under the Thorn handle (when he's not restricted)... he was posting just last week
          Keep on Civin'
          RIP rah, Tony Bogey & Baron O

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          • #80
            Originally posted by Agathon
            No skywalker. Word order is grammatically significant in English.





            If you are right, what is the subject of "Whom is wearing the red dress?" or "Whom are they?"


            I'd think it would be "they", because as I mentioned in the last two posts it's simply "they are whom" inverted ("inversion" is actually a grammatical term, at least according to my French teacher). In "who are they" you'd have two subject pronouns on opposite sides of the verb.

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            • #81
              If they is the subject and whom is the object, then each word must refer to different things. No item can be both the subject and the object unless you use a reflexive pronoun (himself, herself, itself, themselves). e.g. "He washed himself".

              "They" is a demonstrative pronoun (that, those, them) and "whom" is an interrogative pronoun (who, whom, which).

              So you can't be right.
              Only feebs vote.

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              • #82
                Originally posted by skywalker

                It would be incorrect to say "They are who".
                Whom is never used with the verb 'to be' because the verb to be cannot take an object
                One day Canada will rule the world, and then we'll all be sorry.

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                • #83
                  I must say that some seem very ethuisiastic for debating

                  JM
                  Jon Miller-
                  I AM.CANADIAN
                  GENERATION 35: The first time you see this, copy it into your sig on any forum and add 1 to the generation. Social experiment.

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                  • #84
                    Originally posted by Jon Miller
                    I must say that some seem very ethuisiastic for debating
                    I disagree!
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                    • #85
                      Originally posted by loinburger

                      I disagree!
                      I refute you thus: !
                      I make no bones about my moral support for [terrorist] organizations. - chegitz guevara
                      For those who aspire to live in a high cost, high tax, big government place, our nation and the world offers plenty of options. Vermont, Canada and Venezuela all offer you the opportunity to live in the socialist, big government paradise you long for. –Senator Rubio

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                      • #86
                        Originally posted by Big Crunch


                        Whom is never used with the verb 'to be' because the verb to be cannot take an object
                        Huh? In the sentence "I am a furry", "furry" is the object, isn't it?

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                        • #87
                          No. It is a predicate adjective.
                          Only feebs vote.

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                          • #88
                            - This isn't an argument, this is just contradiction.

                            - No it isn't.

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                            • #89
                              Originally posted by Agathon
                              No. It is a predicate adjective.
                              Not "I am furry", "I am a furry". "Furry" as in "stefu"

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                              • #90
                                Originally posted by DinoDoc
                                I refute you thus: !
                                Obviously there's just no getting through to you...
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