I found a way to clarify the fallacy behind Bennie's argument by way of another example:
If a white person is prohibited from marrying a black person, there is no racial discrimination against black people, since white people are also subjected to the same prohibition, AND because black people can still marry other black people -- just not white people.
If a white person is prohibited from marrying a black person, there is no racial discrimination against black people, since white people are also subjected to the same prohibition, AND because black people can still marry other black people -- just not white people.
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