Originally posted by DinoDoc
I fail to see the fundamental difference unless of course someone can point to me how San Fran is allowed to do this according the CA law.
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I get it now. We apparently only support violating the law when it makes us feel good. How far can we extend this rule?
I fail to see the fundamental difference unless of course someone can point to me how San Fran is allowed to do this according the CA law.
(...)
I get it now. We apparently only support violating the law when it makes us feel good. How far can we extend this rule?
The law isn't being violated because "it makes somebody feel good". Here's how the officials involved justified their action:
City and county officials acknowledge that the state's family law forbids same-sex marriage, but they argue that the state's Constitution protects equal rights and takes precedence.
http://www.nytimes.com/2004/02/17/national/17GAYS.html?hp
http://www.nytimes.com/2004/02/17/national/17GAYS.html?hp
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