The Best of the Best

[Solver]

DeepO, I think only one uprising can happen in a game, for Soren says it's triggered by a second time something happens - and there can only be one second time.

[DeepO]

Solver, that's what I want to know. It is possible that certain things happen twice multiple times , one example being the transition to a new age (I know that's not the trigger, but it is an example). If so, you could have 3 uprisings in a game, but would most likely only see one or two of them, as by the time you go from Industrial to modern no camps are present anymore.

DeepO

[Solver]

If a second change of ages would be the trigger, it would also only happen once .

[DAVOUT]

Originally posted by notyoueither
The better bet would be that they occur once a certain percentage of the map is settled. Population pressures are usually what caused the migrations that are viewed as barbarian invasions.

Or when the land available for barbarians is reduced to a certain amount due to settlement, as you said, but also to fortress, pickets and patrols.

[Meldor]

IIRC, I had a game in which there were two different barb uprisings, but I think it was on the 1.16 patch. They both occured within a short period of each other. I have seen barb camps very late in a coquest game, but don't remember any uprisings past the 500 AD time frame. Could be the second civ to reach a certain level of culture. Or the second civ to reach Fuedalism or some other trigger tech.

[DAVOUT]

Uprisings are generated by a pressure of a growing population outside the civilization, when the density of the population inside suddenly decreases, due to an enlargement of the cultural border. Therefore, the trigger should be a cultural level increase.
Or could be ...

[Harovan]

Originally posted by Meldor
Or the second civ to reach Fuedalism or some other trigger tech.

Perhaps the 2nd civ entering the medieval age?

[Solver]

Doesn't sound like it... all civs usually enter the age at about the same time, do you always have uprising at that time?

[cyberhunne]

Originally posted by Sir Ralph


Perhaps the 2nd civ entering the medieval age?

Or maybe the 2nd civ to enter a golden age triggers it?

[Solver]

2nd GA? That sounds quite possible... figure then, in a game with Aztecs, Babylon and the Zulu, uprsings would be granted to occur early.

And that's what I have in my current game: a pretty early uprising, but there's Egypt, Babylon , Zulu and Aztec...

[Soren Johnson]

ok, enough with the suspense!

barbarian uprisings are triggered the second time a civ enters a new age. (once for the middle ages, once for the industrial age, once for the modern age...) The intention was to basically simulate the barbarian hordes that knocked out Rome and (to a lesser degree) the Mongols. This made a little more sense back when barbarians were more destructive, but having half your civ knocked out for seemingly random reasons was deemed not much fun. Instead, we flipped the concept around and gave a temporal bonus (the Golden Age) instead of a temporal penalty.

I think DeepO gets the award for being the first to mention it...

[notyoueither]

Haha! I was... wrong.

Congrats to DeepO and Sir Ralph. ::mutter, mutter::

Thanks for the test Soren. 'twould be cool if we could do it again some time.

[alva]

Originally posted by Soren Johnson Firaxis

I think DeepO gets the award for being the first to mention it...

Belgium 1 - rest of the world 0

[Theseus]

I'm a little confused...

The second time any civ enters a second age? Meaning, I as the human do it, and then an AI civ does it?

Or the second time, period, that one of the civs in the game, human included, does it?

I like the principle.

[Solver]

Thanks Soren for providing us with the guessing. Can you please do another one ?

Hmm, if I ever get an uprising in the Modern Age, I'll tell you .