Even if the Constitution explicitly said "thou shalt not secede" or whatever, who gives a ****? Should Southern Sudan not have been permitted to secede, or Eritrea, or the various former Yugoslav republics, or for that matter the various former Soviet republics, or the numerous former colonies? Even if all of these nations had been under a "thou shalt not secede" Constitution, that Constitution would not matter one whit when determining whether secession was moral.
If slavery were taken out of the equation and the South had only seceded to escape economic oppression, then they'd have been in the right regardless of what the Constitution has to say about secession. But slavery was the main part of the equation, and slaveowners were immoral *******s, so morally the North was justified in preventing secession (even if "to end slavery" was in large part an after the fact justification for the war - none of the allies joined WWII to end the Holocaust either, but this doesn't suddenly render the Holocaust irrelevant when judging the various sides in the war).
If slavery were taken out of the equation and the South had only seceded to escape economic oppression, then they'd have been in the right regardless of what the Constitution has to say about secession. But slavery was the main part of the equation, and slaveowners were immoral *******s, so morally the North was justified in preventing secession (even if "to end slavery" was in large part an after the fact justification for the war - none of the allies joined WWII to end the Holocaust either, but this doesn't suddenly render the Holocaust irrelevant when judging the various sides in the war).
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