It's really hard for me to express what I was getting at. Capital gains only exist from securities that carry risk. There would be a statistical distribution of losses and gains in which the presence of a capital gains tax would be beneficial to encourage investment on the loss side up to the $3000 and cause a distortion against investment on the positive side. So if you want to look at it in aggregate (ie- not just with a single investor), it could be relevant.
Is this supposed to make some sort of ****ing sense as written? Let me translate this into non-****** for you:
1) The existence of a capital gains tax creates a distortion which discourages risk taking; investors basically give away a call option on the appreciation of their portfolio to the government (payoff = 0.15*Max(G,0))
2) Because capital gains are taxed at lower than earned income, the 3000$ window gives investors a free bear put spread option on the appreciation of their portfolio (payoff = 0.20*Min(Max(-G,0),3000)
3) There is some distortion in favor of risk-seeking due to (2)
Now, as anybody with a brain can see, (2) isn't really much of anything. It caps out at 600$. Anybody with a sizable equities portfolio will see annual volatility much bigger than 3000$. Therefore the effect of (2) is unimportant. (1) is not capped, so its effect remains important for all investors.
FFS, this is trivial. I can't believe I wasted 5 minutes writing that
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