Geary–Khamis is supposedly PPP.
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Why do socialists in America refuse to admit they are socialists?
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oredin is right here. the fact is that after the second world war, which didn't affect spain and portugal directly, western europe enjoyed growth because of technological change and things like marshall plan aid (spain of course didn't get marshall plan aid but portugal did, and of course spain received money from the US under the pact of madrid). everywhere enjoyed growth. the fact is that franco's pursued failed policies like autarky and only abandoned these after years and years of failure. spain only regained pre war levels of agricultural production in 1958 (nearly 20 years after the civil war ended). basically franco's economic policy was a disaster for a long time and only after repeated failures did he finally change course.
also curtis, your claim about strikes and unrest is wrong, because there were strikes and unrest during franco's rule. also when you classify striking as treason and throw trade unionists in gaol, it tends to discourage striking...
if you want to see how 'effective' salazar's government was, then do some research on literacy rates in portugal...
the major drivers behind spain's economic growth since franco have been tourism, EU money and the massive increase in foreign investment in the 80s and 90s."The Christian way has not been tried and found wanting, it has been found to be hard and left untried" - GK Chesterton.
"The most obvious predicition about the future is that it will be mostly like the past" - Alain de Botton
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Originally posted by BeBro View PostYou already posted it, but repetition doesn't make it a better argument. First it's nonsense to claim that every political system uses systematic torture and killings to suppress political opposition.
But hey, let's play the game, so I'll repeat my point too: Assume I set up a government that provides economic growth, but will kill people like you who may disagree with my system, cool? I mean, Stalin did industrialize the Soviet Union -- if that doesn't prove him right....
The whole "Franco and Salazar are great examples of stability/whatever" argument reads absurd given their kind of rule didn't last that long, while a lot of the (in your view) less stable or inefficient political systems are still in place.
As far as Stalin goes, I don’t agree with his decisions because of the ineffectiveness of his policies (ie declaring an end to NEP) as well as his attempt to completely manufacture a new culture and to stamp out traditional Russian values, all in the name of the extreme, unbridled pursuit of egalitarianism, something I seriously have problems with. But if you don’t think he was an effective ruler, than history isn’t on your side. He got them through World War II and modernized the country.
And again, I don’t believe necessarily in the pursuit of ‘economic growth’ just for economic growth’s sake (you must not have read many of my posts). The argument I’ve been making is that Franco did so and modernized the country in a much more stable manner than would have been possible under a liberal, capitalist system.
Originally posted by Oerdin View PostMeh, you're using the classic post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy. The reality is the period between 1936-1972 was one of tremendous technological and economic advancement for the whole world and it really doesn't matter who was in charge in Spain because as a western European country it was set to see big changes during that period. If the Republicans had won the Spanish Civil war then you'd be telling us what a great job they did between 1936-1972. The reality is that when Franco died and Spain entered the EU Spain was pretty much a **** hole. It was the poorest state in western Europe (even losing to Ireland and Portugal at the time, ouch) by PPP per capita income and it's infrastructure was so bad the EU has spent the last 40 years giving them subsidies to try to modernize the place. Let's be honest and say Franco wasn't much of a positive factor.
And again, Spain was much better off after Franco than before it. This is why Spaniards don’t look as negatively at that period of history. Barnabas is the most knowledgeable poster on the subject.
Originally posted by MrFun View PostDid you just call Hauldren a liberal?
Originally posted by Kidicious View PostWho told you that muslim countries aren't socialist?
Originally posted by Kuciwalker View PostMrFun, he's a Nazi. So yes, little brother is a liberal compared to him.
Originally posted by N35t0r View Post**** off and die.
In any case, your point in incredibly silly, as the military governments were even more corrupt and inefficient, to the point of declaring war on ****ing Great Britain, and actually expecting the US to be on our side.
As for the liberal governments in Argentina, many of them were completely ineffective, which is why the military stepped in (with support from the general populace, many of whom still feel the same way).
Anyways, Argentina could have won that war. Had their air force been on the same radio transition as the rest of the military and had the bombs they dropped on the British transport ships exploded, it would have ended the war even before the British troops got there. A disaster like that would’ve turned public opinion against the war. And as for the Argentine military dictatorship, they were doing well until the end and were losing public support (this was the norm in Argentina, they flipped back and forth between liberal and military governments). The war was an effort to get the public back on their side, and it was incredibly heroic. They took on a country much more rich and powerful than their own. This kind of [I[thumos[/I] should be exalted, not condemned.
Originally posted by Oerdin View PostI said PPP not nominal. Spain was handicapped prior to joining the EU because they didn't have free trade while places like Ireland and Portugal did thus the nominal cost of stuff was higher and the PPP adjustment was fairly large.
Originally posted by C0ckney View Postoredin is right here. the fact is that after the second world war, which didn't affect spain and portugal directly, western europe enjoyed growth because of technological change and things like marshall plan aid (spain of course didn't get marshall plan aid but portugal did, and of course spain received money from the US under the pact of madrid). everywhere enjoyed growth. the fact is that franco's pursued failed policies like autarky and only abandoned these after years and years of failure. spain only regained pre war levels of agricultural production in 1958 (nearly 20 years after the civil war ended). basically franco's economic policy was a disaster for a long time and only after repeated failures did he finally change course.
also curtis, your claim about strikes and unrest is wrong, because there were strikes and unrest during franco's rule. also when you classify striking as treason and throw trade unionists in gaol, it tends to discourage striking...
if you want to see how 'effective' salazar's government was, then do some research on literacy rates in portugal...
the major drivers behind spain's economic growth since franco have been tourism, EU money and the massive increase in foreign investment in the 80s and 90s.
As far as unrest goes, I’m sure it would have been much worse under a liberal government. Industrialization and economic modernization almost led to revolution in other Western European countries (such as Germany in the mid 19th century) and has led to a lack of stability throughout Latin America. I think Spain’s period of modernization was pretty tame. And as you stated, throwing trade unionists in jail discourages striking.
As for Salazar, there’s other ways to measure a country than its literacy rate. And what was the literacy rate before Salazar?
As for your last paragraph, you proved my point. The growth since Franco hasn’t been based on factors endogenous to Spain’s economy, it has simply been the credit glut/asset boom in the rest of the world that has led to resources pouring into Spain and wealthy people traveling there. That doesn’t mean that these things are sustainable (look at Spain’s economy now), nor that the modern regime is effective at managing the economy. Franco’s era didn’t have this global credit glut, so when you compare Spain under Franco to Spain in 2010, I think it puts his achievements into perspective.
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Originally posted by curtis290 View PostHow many powerful (this is a key word here) political systems haven’t used systematic torture and killings throughout history? The concept of human rights is very new, and only followed by smaller, weaker countries who have no need to do so since they don’t have serious military objectives or enemies at home and abroad. And again, why is it a given we have to use your model of individual rights? A few people were sacrificed for the good of the nation.
The rest is a bit confused. Political systems a hardly per se "powerful" or not - countries are. Sure you can find examples of torture in various countries under various systems, but thing is that modern democracies don't *rely* on these methods, while totalitarian systems do, regardless of country size or 'power'.
As far as Stalin goes, I don’t agree with his decisions because of the ineffectiveness of his policies (ie declaring an end to NEP) as well as his attempt to completely manufacture a new culture and to stamp out traditional Russian values, all in the name of the extreme, unbridled pursuit of egalitarianism, something I seriously have problems with. But if you don’t think he was an effective ruler, than history isn’t on your side. He got them through World War II and modernized the country.
You either don't know much about history or you are distorting it. First winning WWII and industrialization/modernization - which of course happened - proves nothing about the way in which it was achieved. The Soviet system was in economical terms never really effective, under Stalin or later, that is one of the reasons why it broke down.
As for the war, it's laughable to claim that Soviet warfare in WWII was effective - it was exactly the opposite. What allowed them to win was that they had enough manpower and ressources to burn, and they did so until the end of the war. And Stalin was personally responsible for a lot of failures and problems esp. in the early period of the war, for example by decimating his own officer corps in the late 30ies or by failing to give out any orders that make sense in the early days of the invasion.
And again, I don’t believe necessarily in the pursuit of ‘economic growth’ just for economic growth’s sake (you must not have read many of my posts). The argument I’ve been making is that Franco did so and modernized the country in a much more stable manner than would have been possible under a liberal, capitalist system.Blah
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I pressed backspace at one point and it took me back a page so I lost the whole damn thing. I hate computers. This post won't be as good, I don't have the energy to do it all over again.
Originally posted by BeBro View PostFirst I have to notice that you missed another opportunity to answer the question if you'd support a system killing people like you for the greater good/whatever
Originally posted by BeBro View PostThe rest is a bit confused. Political systems a hardly per se "powerful" or not - countries are. Sure you can find examples of torture in various countries under various systems, but thing is that modern democracies don't *rely* on these methods, while totalitarian systems do, regardless of country size or 'power'.
I also disagree with your dichotomy between democratic and totalitarian regimes. Is every non-democratic regime a 'totalitarian' one? What exactly defines a democratic government, and what is a totalitarian one? And since totalitarianism was a term made popular after World War II, what about governments before World War II? Many of them wouldn't qualify as democracies by your standards, does that mean they're totalitarian? What about any government before the 18th century, were all of them totalitarian? It seems overly simplistic to link together Hitler's Germany, Mussolini's Italy, absolutist France, feudal Japan, some random tribe in Africa, the Apache Indians, the Aztecs...basically every society/government in history before the Enlightenment and many after...under one term, 'totalitarianism.'
And I strongly disagree with your claim that modern democracies don't need to 'rely' on torture. How about the US before 1865? I bet slavery would be included under your definition of torture, and the US had to rely on that for stability until the civil war. And many times democracies fall because of their inability to take extreme measures to save themselves. So all you're saying is that when push comes to shove, democracies are less able to maintain order or survive as a regime. That doesn't speak to the effectiveness to democracy as a political system.
Originally posted by BeBro View PostWTF, you come with something like "ineffectiveness of his policies" and then want to tell me he was an effective ruler?
You either don't know much about history or you are distorting it. First winning WWII and industrialization/modernization - which of course happened - proves nothing about the way in which it was achieved. The Soviet system was in economical terms never really effective, under Stalin or later, that is one of the reasons why it broke down.
As for the war, it's laughable to claim that Soviet warfare in WWII was effective - it was exactly the opposite. What allowed them to win was that they had enough manpower and ressources to burn, and they did so until the end of the war. And Stalin was personally responsible for a lot of failures and problems esp. in the early period of the war, for example by decimating his own officer corps in the late 30ies or by failing to give out any orders that make sense in the early days of the invasion.
By the end of the 1940s they had tested their first nuclear weapon. By 1957 it had beaten the US into space, and by 1961 it was winning that race. By the early to mid 1960s it had finished industrializing, and was to the point where there wasn't really any room for economic growth. The next stage for its economy would have been producing more consumer goods, which it obviously could not have done as well as market-based economies. This lack of economic growth ultimately led to its demise, especially after it had been promised in the Kitchen Debates. I think socialism is one of mankind's most dangerous enemies, yet it's simply bad history to say that the USSR wasn't successful economically during NEP or during the period of 1945-1965ish.
As for Stalin, I'm ambivalent about him. Obviously he was a socialist of sorts, which I despise, and he killed far too many of his own people as well as made some amazing blunders. But he certainly was a strong leader who got his people through some trying times.
Originally posted by BeBro View PostThe argument is still stupid. A system that needs to oppress opposition *to keep itself alive* is hardly a stable one.
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Originally posted by Cort Haus View PostTip, Curtis - if you're typing in more than you want to re-type then CTRL-A CTRL-C keeps a backup in the buffer to allow a CTRL-V to paste it back in again.
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Originally posted by curtis290 View PostAs is obvious from my posts, I don't believe in worshipping individual rights. I believe that society and the nation are more important than the individual, and that the devotion to individual freedoms have come at a great cost to societies and nations.
In regards to powerful nations vs. weaker ones, powerful nations are more likely to have to use torture. They have larger foreign policy objectives as well as threats to their security at home and abroad. Norway is less likely to use torture than the US because it doesn't have to manage an empire, doesn't have to worry about threats to its security from terrorists, and doesn't have to worry about threats to its stability from its own people.
I also disagree with your dichotomy between democratic and totalitarian regimes. Is every non-democratic regime a 'totalitarian' one? What exactly defines a democratic government, and what is a totalitarian one? And since totalitarianism was a term made popular after World War II, what about governments before World War II? Many of them wouldn't qualify as democracies by your standards, does that mean they're totalitarian? What about any government before the 18th century, were all of them totalitarian? It seems overly simplistic to link together Hitler's Germany, Mussolini's Italy, absolutist France, feudal Japan, some random tribe in Africa, the Apache Indians, the Aztecs...basically every society/government in history before the Enlightenment and many after...under one term, 'totalitarianism.'
And I strongly disagree with your claim that modern democracies don't need to 'rely' on torture. How about the US before 1865? I bet slavery would be included under your definition of torture, and the US had to rely on that for stability until the civil war.
And many times democracies fall because of their inability to take extreme measures to save themselves. So all you're saying is that when push comes to shove, democracies are less able to maintain order or survive as a regime. That doesn't speak to the effectiveness to democracy as a political system.
OK, your first claim that the Soviet Union's economic policy was never effective is rather silly. Going into World War I Russia was pretty much the most backwards nation in Europe (in terms of economic development). The war greatly impacted its economy, and after the revolution, it was destroyed by civil war in the 20s. NEP worked very well and the SU industrialized very quickly. Then Stalin declared an end to that, which was not so good for the economy. World War II completely destroyed much of its industry again. In 1945, the USSR was a weakling and much less advanced than the US, for example. All it had was a large army.
By the end of the 1940s they had tested their first nuclear weapon. By 1957 it had beaten the US into space, and by 1961 it was winning that race. By the early to mid 1960s it had finished industrializing, and was to the point where there wasn't really any room for economic growth. The next stage for its economy would have been producing more consumer goods, which it obviously could not have done as well as market-based economies. This lack of economic growth ultimately led to its demise, especially after it had been promised in the Kitchen Debates. I think socialism is one of mankind's most dangerous enemies, yet it's simply bad history to say that the USSR wasn't successful economically during NEP or during the period of 1945-1965ish.
I really don't follow here. Many, many regimes were 'oppressive' by your standards were very stable (just about every government in history during a period of stability). We've been discussing the USSR...by your standards it was an oppressive regime from 1945 to the 1980s and it certainly was totalitarian, yet it was incredibly stable during that time period (Chernobyl was the beginning of the end).
There were many liberal governments throughout history that were not oppressive and highly unstable because they were unwilling to take extreme measures to survive, and many unstable liberal government that did take such measures that fell anyway.
I think your definition of 'oppression' is completely independent of whether or not a regime is stable. We'll find plenty of stable regimes that were 'oppressive,' and obviously unstable regimes that were 'oppressive.' Recently, regimes have come about that aren't 'oppressive,' and some of them have enjoyed stability and some of them haven't.Last edited by BeBMan; October 23, 2010, 06:15.Blah
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