Announcement

Collapse
No announcement yet.

for nye

Collapse
X
 
  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • Well it's late and I haven't messed around with numbers like this in three years so forgive any mistakes but I came up with...

    effective tax rate= 100*[(I*PsubscriptN*(1+N))-(((I*(1-T))*(1+(PsubscriptN*N)*(1-T)))]/(I*PsubscriptN*(1+N))

    where N is the % increase/decrease in value of a security, PsubscriptN is the probability of N for all N, and T is the nominal tax rate.

    The basic intuitive thing is that losses up to $3000 offset equivalent gains for tax purposes because of the benefit in tax deduction but I'm not sure exactly how to represent it in the equation (can't think right now how to do it so it's not represented in the equation except as a constraint relating to N I suppose). Beyond that though, obviously, the disadvantages of tax become apparent and the ETR approaches or exceeds the nominal TR.

    Fooling around with it, assuming a 20% tax rate (including on capital gains), with a $3000 capital loss maximum deduction, and a $10,000 initial investment (well, it's taxed at 20% so $8000 investment), the security can dip to a loss of 38% (8000*(1-.38)=~5000) before hitting the $3000 capital loss wall. That leaves an ETR of 10.4% or a mere 52% of the nominal TR. If the value increases by 38%, the ETR is 24.4% (122% of the NTR). So at these points, I can pay 52% of my initial tax if I lose $3000 or 122% of my initial tax if I make $3000.

    At higher tax rates, this disparity in the % of the nominal that the ETR is between a 38% loss and a 38% gain closes (at 50% nominal TR, the ETR as % of NTR becomes 70% and 113% respectively). So higher nominal TR results in weakened tax benefits from capital losses but also ETR's closer to the nominal TR on the positive gain side. Makes sense, as you approach 100% NTR, ETR should approach 100%. Kind of funny. At higher tax rates, ETR approaches NTR. Higher tax rates!

    Now, at higher gains, all else being equal, ETR as a % of NTR increases but at a decreasing rate (1%->2% gain, ETR as % of NTR increases by 0.77 or 0.7% increase, 40%->41% ETR as % of NTR increases by 0.40 or 0.3%). These changes in the ETR as % of NTR get smaller overall and more narrow between different gain levels as the tax rate increases (At 40% tax rate, 1%->2% gain, 0.58 or 0.57%; 40%->41%, .30 or 0.25%).

    I know I'm rambling sorry it's late. The point is, I think, could be wrong, tired, but if you put in the probabilities of different investment outcomes then you have a handy little tool for determining the most tax efficient allocation of investments in a portfolio at different tax rates (too bad you can't really control this variable legally). haha not really relevant to this thread i guess. God it's been a long time since I did anything financial. I feel like I'm overlooking something d'uh.
    Last edited by Al B. Sure!; May 17, 2010, 05:39.
    "Flutie was better than Kelly, Elway, Esiason and Cunningham." - Ben Kenobi
    "I have nothing against Wilson, but he's nowhere near the same calibre of QB as Flutie. Flutie threw for 5k+ yards in the CFL." -Ben Kenobi

    Comment


    • AS: I believe in the US people can only deduct capital losses from capital gains, not from earned income. So your example is broken. Even if it did work, all you would have shown is that a capital gains tax provides favorable rates to people who make bad investments. ...why is this a good thing?

      Comment


      • will reply in more detail later

        edit: your 25% figure is not sensibly calculated. The $800 is pre-investment but the $600 is post-investment.

        edit2: to elaborate, under none of the scenarios does he actually ever get to spend $800.
        Last edited by Kuciwalker; May 17, 2010, 10:42.

        Comment


        • Originally posted by Dauphin View Post
          Hmm. Check this.

          You buy an asset for $100k. Borrow $100k secured against the asset (i.e there is no previous earnt income which has been taxed). Asset increases in value to $110k. You sell and make a profit of $10k. You repay your loan plus interest $105k.

          Net position - you have $110k sale proceeds - $105k loan repayment = $5k to spend.

          Scenario 1 (Income tax ONLY): The $5k is not taxed
          Scenario 2 (Consumption tax ONLY) : The $5k is taxed.
          Not true. Under scenario 1 the $100k you had originally derived from income, so it must have been taxed (and been $125k beforehand if the rate is 20%). Therefore under scenario 2 you would have bought an asset worth $125k, borrowed $125k secured against the asset, had an increase in value to $137.5k, made a profit of $12.5k, and then paid 20% of that in consumption tax leaving you with a real $10k.

          As I said before, investing on the margin doesn't break this so long as there is a non-zero collateral requirement, because the amount you can borrow is proportional to your collateral*.

          *I understand that this is an idealization and that there are some nonlinear effects

          Comment


          • Errrr....you're also ignoring the fact that the person you're paying interest to is being charged for the income he's receiving.
            12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
            Stadtluft Macht Frei
            Killing it is the new killing it
            Ultima Ratio Regum

            Comment


            • That's a fair point which makes the CG tax look even worse.

              Comment


              • It's actually the major point here; the taxation on interest income captures the time value of money. In addition, investing on margin gives the govt an option on risky investments.
                12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
                Stadtluft Macht Frei
                Killing it is the new killing it
                Ultima Ratio Regum

                Comment


                • Originally posted by Kuciwalker View Post
                  Not true. Under scenario 1 the $100k you had originally derived from income, so it must have been taxed (and been $125k beforehand if the rate is 20%).
                  If I take a loan to buy an asset, sell the asset and repay the loan back out of the asset proceeds, at what point have I earnt income?
                  One day Canada will rule the world, and then we'll all be sorry.

                  Comment


                  • Originally posted by KrazyHorse View Post
                    Errrr....you're also ignoring the fact that the person you're paying interest to is being charged for the income he's receiving.
                    I didn't forget it, I just chose to ignore it from a personal tax perspective (see post above), which is what I'm looking at.

                    As a whole, tax is collected at some point.
                    One day Canada will rule the world, and then we'll all be sorry.

                    Comment


                    • Yes, tax is collected at least once on all gains, in addition to at accumulation of principal. When capital gains are realized and reinvested (or returned as dividends or interest) the distortion becomes even greater.
                      12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
                      Stadtluft Macht Frei
                      Killing it is the new killing it
                      Ultima Ratio Regum

                      Comment


                      • Kuci:



                        # If your capital losses exceed your capital gains, the excess can be deducted on your tax return and used to reduce other income, such as wages, up to an annual limit of $3,000, or $1,500 if you are married filing separately.
                        I should know. Like I said, I took full value of the capital loss deduction for 2009 and will be using it the next two years.

                        Now...
                        Even if it did work, all you would have shown is that a capital gains tax provides favorable rates to people who make bad investments. ...why is this a good thing?
                        Umm... it means that the unfavorable tax situation on the plus side is compensated by the favorable tax situation in case of loss (ie- all investments involving capital gains are made under conditions of uncertainty so you have to take your lumps with your gains) so what I'm saying is up until a loss of $3000, the plusses and minuses of a CG tax with regards to ETR balance out under conditions of uncertainty. This is a very important point.


                        edit: your 25% figure is not sensibly calculated. The $800 is pre-investment but the $600 is post-investment.
                        Look, what you yourself was calculating was the effective tax rate. The effective tax rate by definition is the actual tax paid divided by net taxable income, expressed as a percentage. That is why using $750 is not quite accurate because he wouldn't be taxed on that (the issue is the difference in losses... he losses less money in absolute terms with a tax because he had less money to invest). He would instead be taxed on $800, which is the $1000 original minus his $200 in capital losses.

                        So there you go.


                        Could anyone else a bit more seasoned in financial modeling help out a bit. Did I make some errors? Or could you explain it in a way that a CS grad like Kuci could understand?
                        Last edited by Al B. Sure!; May 17, 2010, 15:54.
                        "Flutie was better than Kelly, Elway, Esiason and Cunningham." - Ben Kenobi
                        "I have nothing against Wilson, but he's nowhere near the same calibre of QB as Flutie. Flutie threw for 5k+ yards in the CFL." -Ben Kenobi

                        Comment


                        • Originally posted by KrazyHorse View Post
                          Yes, tax is collected at least once on all gains, in addition to at accumulation of principal. When capital gains are realized and reinvested (or returned as dividends or interest) the distortion becomes even greater.
                          How does this distortion reflect in real life behavior?

                          JM
                          Jon Miller-
                          I AM.CANADIAN
                          GENERATION 35: The first time you see this, copy it into your sig on any forum and add 1 to the generation. Social experiment.

                          Comment


                          • Originally posted by Dauphin View Post
                            If I take a loan to buy an asset, sell the asset and repay the loan back out of the asset proceeds, at what point have I earnt income?
                            As long as you needed collateral in proportion to the loan then to total amount of money you have has been decreased linearly by the tax.

                            Comment


                            • Originally posted by Jon Miller View Post
                              How does this distortion reflect in real life behavior?

                              JM
                              By increasing the propensity to consume rather than invest.
                              12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
                              Stadtluft Macht Frei
                              Killing it is the new killing it
                              Ultima Ratio Regum

                              Comment


                              • Originally posted by Albert Speer View Post
                                Umm... it means that the unfavorable tax situation on the plus side is compensated by the favorable tax situation in case of loss (ie- all investments involving capital gains are made under conditions of uncertainty so you have to take your lumps with your gains) so what I'm saying is up until a loss of $3000, the plusses and minuses of a CG tax with regards to ETR balance out under conditions of uncertainty. This is a very important point.
                                Only if you are just as likely to be losing money on your investments as gaining. Do you really want to penalize saving by intelligent investors but reward it by really dumb ones?

                                Look, what you yourself was calculating was the effective tax rate. The effective tax rate by definition is the actual tax paid divided by net taxable income, expressed as a percentage.
                                No, the effective tax rate by definition is the proportion of money you no longer have compared to the no-tax scenario.

                                hat is why using $750 is not quite accurate because he wouldn't be taxed on that (the issue is the difference in losses... he losses less money in absolute terms with a tax because he had less money to invest). He would instead be taxed on $800, which is the $1000 original minus his $200 in capital losses.


                                Your definition makes meaningful comparison between tax schemes impossible.

                                Comment

                                Working...
                                X