You don't understanding my point. If they didn't add the entire stimulus to FY '09, the labels inherently don't make sense. "Without stimulus" has to exclude TARP. Arithmetic says so.
And TARP I+II (i.e. both halves of the initial appropriation)+Stimulus FY 09 is probably going to be significantly more than the difference between the two graphs (6.7% of GDP using the Senate version).
Where did you get this anyways?
Edit:
Are you suggesting that there's a secret appropriation that Geithner has proposed, known only to "Strategas"?
And TARP I+II (i.e. both halves of the initial appropriation)+Stimulus FY 09 is probably going to be significantly more than the difference between the two graphs (6.7% of GDP using the Senate version).
Where did you get this anyways?
Edit:
Are you suggesting that there's a secret appropriation that Geithner has proposed, known only to "Strategas"?
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