Originally posted by GePap
Yes, there are a lot of variables changing all the time - which leads me to ask why would all these disparate variables all allign in certain ways during periods of Democratic rule and Republican rule and led to this steady statistical regularity?
again, if things are so outside the control of party, why should we get sucha clear distinction, for example, in growth rates at the very bottom, over a 50 year period?
Yes, there are a lot of variables changing all the time - which leads me to ask why would all these disparate variables all allign in certain ways during periods of Democratic rule and Republican rule and led to this steady statistical regularity?
again, if things are so outside the control of party, why should we get sucha clear distinction, for example, in growth rates at the very bottom, over a 50 year period?
I made a point earlier, about the fact that the last three republican mandate were made during a recession. The two first recessions were worldwide (1981 & 1991) while the 2001 one was probably mainly in USA and caused by the wake of 911.
I'm pretty sure that you can't blame republican for these recessions. And had a huge effect on the correlation stats.
Usually in social science, you will have a time lapses of several years when you try to see the correlation between the two variable. Since you'll suppose that the effect is not immediate.
Right now I'm working on a paper which seek the correlation between the liberality of divorce law in 1961 and the outcome of divorce in 1967-1968. Since the effect will never be immediate.
Really; this study seems to be really amateurish, which is surprising since the guy should have a PHD.
Edit: I'll read the text again, since I supposed that I am wrong somewhere.
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