Quite an interesting question. I've been cogitating over the question of abortion.
Up till recently, I was of the opinion that abortion should be allowed at any stage of the pregnancy whatsoever. The reasoning behind this was that the woman's right over her body and the foetus' right to life were both absolutely equal, and that therefore the state did not have a moral basis to intervene in case of a conflict between the two rights, and that it would have to let whatever happened, happen.
However, I've realised that this stance considers only the moment, and not the context.
The question arose: does a woman's consent to intercourse imply that she has chosen to voluntary suspend her rights over her body with regards to the foetus and the pregnancy?
Of course, this means that when the intercourse was not in fact consensual, the situation reverts back to what the current position is.
I've devised a simple thought experiment to illustrate my point:
Imagine that there exists a person X. Person X knows that if he does act A, there is a chance that a completely unrelated person P will become completely dependent on X by becoming symbiotic with X's body for a set amount of time. X does it anyway. Now X can argue that he has a right over his body, and that he can choose to remove (and therefore lead to the death of) P at any time, but does this not ignore the context?
That is, when X did act A, knowing full well that it could result in P becoming symbiotically dependent on X, does it not then amount to X voluntarily choosing to suspend his right to remove P for that duration. given the fact that P had no choice in the matter?
I'm currently undecided as to where I should stand on abortion, because the above argument has made me question my previous unequivocal pro-abortion stance.
Opinions?
Up till recently, I was of the opinion that abortion should be allowed at any stage of the pregnancy whatsoever. The reasoning behind this was that the woman's right over her body and the foetus' right to life were both absolutely equal, and that therefore the state did not have a moral basis to intervene in case of a conflict between the two rights, and that it would have to let whatever happened, happen.
However, I've realised that this stance considers only the moment, and not the context.
The question arose: does a woman's consent to intercourse imply that she has chosen to voluntary suspend her rights over her body with regards to the foetus and the pregnancy?
Of course, this means that when the intercourse was not in fact consensual, the situation reverts back to what the current position is.
I've devised a simple thought experiment to illustrate my point:
Imagine that there exists a person X. Person X knows that if he does act A, there is a chance that a completely unrelated person P will become completely dependent on X by becoming symbiotic with X's body for a set amount of time. X does it anyway. Now X can argue that he has a right over his body, and that he can choose to remove (and therefore lead to the death of) P at any time, but does this not ignore the context?
That is, when X did act A, knowing full well that it could result in P becoming symbiotically dependent on X, does it not then amount to X voluntarily choosing to suspend his right to remove P for that duration. given the fact that P had no choice in the matter?
I'm currently undecided as to where I should stand on abortion, because the above argument has made me question my previous unequivocal pro-abortion stance.
Opinions?
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