To start, this isn't an invitation for subjective theological mudslinging, it's an inquiry about the actual historical record in Europe and the pre-Islamic Near East.
1) If someone of non-Hebrew ethnicity were to believe that the Tanakh was a product of divinely inspired prophets but that Jesus and Muhammad were false prophets, could this person be accurately classified as Jewish?
2) If someone were to believe that Jesus was indeed a human manifestation of the supreme being (in other words god's spirit inside a human body, or even a thorough 'blend' of the two) as opposed to a "son" that is a distinct entity within a trinity, is/was there a certain sect of Christianity - likely considered heretical by anyone adhering to rulings of past ecumenical councils - into which this person could be classified?
*ducks*
1) If someone of non-Hebrew ethnicity were to believe that the Tanakh was a product of divinely inspired prophets but that Jesus and Muhammad were false prophets, could this person be accurately classified as Jewish?
2) If someone were to believe that Jesus was indeed a human manifestation of the supreme being (in other words god's spirit inside a human body, or even a thorough 'blend' of the two) as opposed to a "son" that is a distinct entity within a trinity, is/was there a certain sect of Christianity - likely considered heretical by anyone adhering to rulings of past ecumenical councils - into which this person could be classified?
*ducks*
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