You said that 70% of wealth comes from wages, not that 70% of income goes to wages.
you're right, vocabulary mistake
nah, the graph I have goes from 1960 to 2000 and has a single red line (not a best fit line, but no wild fluctuations.) the blue graph is a little misleading since its y scale covers only 5 percentage points. also right before 1970 according to my graph the share of labor income was at its highest in the graphs period, so having that as a starting point of a best fit line will have an impact on the slope of the line. the blog says that since 1970, we have seen a decrease of 2% in the labor share, but if you bring the analysis back to 1960, there has been no change in its share over the last 40 years.
i still don't understand why we wouldnt include depreciation?
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