Originally posted by molly bloom
What's 'unfair' about his comment ?
Wasn't Jefferson a Virginian ? Didn't he own slaves ? Is he not famous for his defence of the 'natural' and 'essential' liberties of the colonies and the colonists ?
I seem to recall that Patrick Henry and Henry Laurens were from the south too...
In fact, Congress removed part of the original draft of Jefferson's Declaration of Independence which contained material laying the blame on George III (!) for the slave trade.
To Jefferson's recollection, the colonies of South Carolina and Georgia found the passage offensive, as did delegates from the northern colonies, because, in Jefferson's own words:
Well quite- since the Dutch landed slaves there in the early part of the 17th Century.
New York was one of the larger slaveholding areas, the largest north of the Chesapeake, and in Albany and New York City, slaves amounted to 15%- 20% of the population. In fact, New York saw a slave revolt in 1712...
It's calculated that one third of the white population owned at least one slave- the difference being the way that slaves were distributed throughout the more northerly colonies, being house servants, farmhands or working in smithies or at trades, rather than being concentrated in larger numbers as they were on southern plantations.
Ergo, slavery was an institution throughout the American colonies.
According to Gordon S. Wood, in 'The American Revolution- A History' in the chapter 'Republican Society' :
By the way- Johnson's pamphlet is dated 1775. Franklin became President of the Pennsylvanian Abolition Society in 1787.
And he still owned slaves in 1772...
And you're quite sure about this, are you ? Not confusing him with Anthony Benezet, by any chance ?
What's 'unfair' about his comment ?
Wasn't Jefferson a Virginian ? Didn't he own slaves ? Is he not famous for his defence of the 'natural' and 'essential' liberties of the colonies and the colonists ?
I seem to recall that Patrick Henry and Henry Laurens were from the south too...
In fact, Congress removed part of the original draft of Jefferson's Declaration of Independence which contained material laying the blame on George III (!) for the slave trade.
To Jefferson's recollection, the colonies of South Carolina and Georgia found the passage offensive, as did delegates from the northern colonies, because, in Jefferson's own words:
Well quite- since the Dutch landed slaves there in the early part of the 17th Century.
New York was one of the larger slaveholding areas, the largest north of the Chesapeake, and in Albany and New York City, slaves amounted to 15%- 20% of the population. In fact, New York saw a slave revolt in 1712...
It's calculated that one third of the white population owned at least one slave- the difference being the way that slaves were distributed throughout the more northerly colonies, being house servants, farmhands or working in smithies or at trades, rather than being concentrated in larger numbers as they were on southern plantations.
Ergo, slavery was an institution throughout the American colonies.
According to Gordon S. Wood, in 'The American Revolution- A History' in the chapter 'Republican Society' :
By the way- Johnson's pamphlet is dated 1775. Franklin became President of the Pennsylvanian Abolition Society in 1787.
And he still owned slaves in 1772...
And you're quite sure about this, are you ? Not confusing him with Anthony Benezet, by any chance ?
the highest concentrations of slave owners in NY, IIUC was among Dutch farmers, who were mainly loyalist. AFAIK there was no greater concentration of slaveownership among patriots than among loyalists in the middle and southern colonies.
New England and Pennsylvania abolished slavery shortly after independence.
The proportion of whites who owned slaves in the loyal colonies of the west indies was undoubtedly higher than 1/3
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