Originally posted by Ned
LoTM, my sister lived in Germany in the '60s and reported a general hostilty to Americans, particularly among the WWII generation. I assume this had something to do with the war.
So, why would it have been any different post WWI?
LoTM, my sister lived in Germany in the '60s and reported a general hostilty to Americans, particularly among the WWII generation. I assume this had something to do with the war.
So, why would it have been any different post WWI?
2. Assuming there was hostility on the part of SOME older Germans, somecritical differences might include that the US fought against Germany for several years during WW2, and in the last year we had a massive troop presence, both in contrast to WW1. The effect of large scale strategic bombing might also be there.
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